UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form Here You Can Get All The Current And Upcoming Information Related To UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy 2024. Like Recruitment News, Total Posts, Important Dates, UPSC CAPF 506 AC Application Fees, Qualification, Age Limit, Selection Process, Salary, Syllabus, Exam Pattern, UPSC CAPF 506 AC Exam Date, Admit Card, Answer Key, Merit List, Result, Question Paper and More. UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form All India Jobs UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form UPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online FormUPSC CAPF 506 AC Vacancy Online Form Latest Job Top 5 job in Haryana Top 10 job in Inida Top 5 job in Police Top 10 job in Haryana Top 10 Job Army Top 10 job in Bihar Top 10 Job in MP Top 10 job in Rajasthan Top 10 Police Job Top 10 Teaching Job Top 10 Data entry jobs Top 10 Offline Form Top Online FOrm Top 10 Army top 10 All india job top 10 job Junior Assistant Top 10 typist job Top 10 stenographer job Top 10 clerk Job in Haryana 1 EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.09/2024-CPF DATED: 24.04.2024 (LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION APPLICATIONS: 14.05.2024) CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION, 2024 (COMMISSION’S WEBSITE: https://www.upsc.gov.in) IMPORTANT 1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION: Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test. 2. HOW TO APPLY: Candidates are required to apply online only by using the website https://www.upsconline. nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. 2.1 Modification in OTR Profile: In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at OTR platform. The change in OTR profile data shall be available till expiry of 07 days from the next day after the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In case, the candidate after registration of OTR applies for the first time in this examination last date of modification of OTR would be 21.05.2024. 2.2 Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile): The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form for this examination from next day of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 07 days from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from 15.05.2024 to 21.05.2024. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her OTR profile during this period, then he/she should log into the OTR platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the OTR profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. 2.3 Withdrawal of Application: The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after submission of the same. Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in AppendixII. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website. 2 2.4 Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test. 3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS: The Online Applications can be filled upto 14th May, 2024 till 18:00 Hours. 4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admission Certificate on the last working day of preceding week of the date of the Examination. The e-Admission Certificate will be made available in the UPSC website [https//www.upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admission Certificate will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid and active E-Mail I.D. while filling up Online Application Form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them. 5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS (In Objective Type Question Paper): Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper. 6. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP OMR SHEETS: (a) For both writing and marking answers in the OMR Sheets (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball point pen only. Pens with any other colours are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates are further advised to read Special Instructions contained in Appendix-III of the Notice. (b) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling in details in the OMR answer sheet; especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. 7. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS: Candidates are advised to read carefully “Special Instructions to the Candidates for Conventional Type Tests” (Appendix-IV). 8. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES: In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near ‘C’ Gate of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10:00 hrs. and 17:00 hrs. 9. Mobile Phones/other articles Banned: (a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. (b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the Examination. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard. 3 10. Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph while filling up online application form:- (a) The photograph, uploaded by candidate should not be more than 10 days old from the start of the online application process (i.e. the application commencement date). (b) Ensure that the name of candidate and the date on which the photograph was taken are clearly mentioned on the photograph. (c) The candidate’s face should occupy 3/4th of the space in the photograph. (d) The candidates must ensure that their appearance must match with their photograph at each stage of the Examination Process i.e. at the time of Written and Interview/Personality Test. For instance, If a candidate uploads a bearded photograph, he must appear with the same look in the Written and Interview/Personality Test. Same would be the case with spectacles, moustaches, etc. 11. The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time at least 30 minutes prior to the commencement of each session of the Examination. No late entry will be allowed inside the Exam-venue under any circumstances. 12. Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep) The Commission has introduced a time frame of 7 days (a week) i.e. from the next day of the Examination Date to 6:00 p.m. of the 7th day is fixed for the candidates to make representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination. Such representation must be submitted through the “Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)” only by accessing the URL http://upsconline/nic/in/miscellaneous/QPRep/. No representation by email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of 7 days is over. CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION. GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTSS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY. No.11/01/2024-E.1(B) : The Union Public Service Commission will hold a Written Examination on 04th August, 2024 for recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). The Examination will be held in accordance with the Rules for the published by Ministry of Home Affairs in the Gazette of India dated 24th April, 2024. The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. The tentative Examination number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination is as follows: (i) BSF 186 (ii) CRPF 120 (iii) CISF 100 (iv) ITBP 58 (iv) SSB 42 ----------------------------------------- Total 506 ----------------------------------------- The number of vacancies mentioned above is liable to alteration. Reservation will be given effect to as per policy of the Govt. 10% of the vacancies are earmarked for exservicemen. 4 NOTE: In case the vacancy(ies) reserved for Ex-servicemen remain unfilled due to nonavailability of eligible or qualified candidates, the same shall be filled by candidates from nonex-servicemen category. 2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION: The Examination will be held at the following centres: The centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the Centres, except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the “first-apply-first allot” basis, and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre of their Choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice. NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands. Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be entertained. Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, other Backward Classes and Economically Weaker Sections categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular caste to which the candidates belong is included in the list of reserved communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility certification. The OBC candidates applying for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2024 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2023-24, 2022-23 and 2021-22 and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after completion of FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2024, i.e. 14.05.2024. S. No. Centres S. No. Centres S. No. Centres 1. AGARTALA 17. HYDERABAD 33. PANAJI (GOA) 2. AHMEDABAD 18. IMPHAL 34. PATNA 3. AIZAWL 19 ITANAGAR 35. PORT BLAIR 4. ALMORA(UTTARAKHAND) 20. JAIPUR 36. PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD) 5. BENGALURU 21. JAMMU 37. RAIPUR 6. BAREILLY 22. JORHAT 38. RANCHI 7. BHOPAL 23. KARGIL 39. SAMBALPUR 8. CHANDIGARH 24. KOCHI 40. SHILLONG 9. CHENNAI 25. KOHIMA 41. SHIMLA 10. CUTTACK 26. KOLKATTA 42. SRINAGAR 11. DEHRADUN 27. LEH 43. SRINAGAR(UTTARAKHAND) 12. DELHI 28. LUCKNOW 44. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM 13. DHARAMSHALA (H.P.) 29. MADURAI 45. TIRUPATI 14. DHARWAR 30. MANDI (H.P.) 46. UDAIPUR 15. DISPUR 31. MUMBAI 47. VISHAKHAPATNAM 16. GANGTOK 32. NAGPUR 5 If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of the Examination on General Merit shall be allowed to change (on their request or as decided by the Commission/ Government based on the documents submitted by them) their category from Reserved to Unreserved or claim the vacancies (Forces) for unreserved category after the declaration of final result by UPSC. In case where such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be cancelled. While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of community from general to reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit. Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/EWS/OBC must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They should also be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits by the Closing date of the application. A candidate of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2024 will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2023-24 and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after completion of FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2024, i.e. 14.05.2024. As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities, the Commission will publically disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in respect of only those candidates who will appear in the Interview/ Personality Test for the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination and are not finally recommended for appointment. The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the non-recommended candidates may be used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in the public portal. Candidates will be required to give their options at the time of Interview/Personality Test, while acknowledging the e-summon letter mailed to them for interview. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission. Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended candidates for the examinations conducted by the Commission, the Commission will not assume any responsibility of liability for the method and manner in which information related to candidates who appear at the Commission’s Examinations/Selections is utilized by other private of public organizations. 3. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS : (I) Nationality : No person who is not a citizen of India shall, except with the consent of the Central Government signified in writing be appointed or employed under these Rules. Provided that nothing contained in these rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or employment of a subject of Nepal or Bhutan under these Rules. (II) Sex : Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant Commandants. 6 (III) Age Limits : (a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age of 25 years on 1st August, 2024, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1999 and not later than 1st August, 2004. (b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable. (i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe. (ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. (iii) upto a maximum of five years for Civilian Central Government Servants in accordance with the existing instructions of the Central Government. ExServicemen will also be eligible for this relaxation. However the total relaxation claimed on account of Government Service will be limited to five years. Note I : Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clause of Para 3(III)(b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Civilian Central Government Servants/ExServicemen, will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories. Note-II: The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time and the instructions issued by the Government vide DoP&T’s OM No.36012/3/2021-Estt. (Res.II) dated 27.02.2023, which provides, inter-alia, as under:- “Candidates working in the Armed Forces would become eligible for applying Civil posts only when he completes the prescribed period of Armed Forces Service within a year from the last date of receiving application in connection with Special Recruitment/ Examination, etc., prescribed by the Competent Authority. Provided, when selection process takes more than one year, from the last date of receiving of applications, the candidate will not be declared ineligible under Ex-servicemen category only on the ground that he has got himself released from Armed Forces after one year from the last date of receiving of application.” Such candidates are also required to be in possession of the prescribed certificate and the Undertaking as at Appendix-VI(A) and VI(B) of this Notice, by the closing date of the application, i.e. by 14.05.2024. Note-III: The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” in Para 3(b)(iii) above will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time. Note-IV: The age concession under Para 3(II)(b)(iii) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension. The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time. SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED. Note-V : The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian 7 University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instructions includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. NOTE-VI: Candidates should also note that once Date of Birth has been submitted by them in the application form and entered in records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other Examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever. Provided that in case of an inadvertent/unintentional/typographical error committed by a candidate in indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may make a request to the Commission for subsequent rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the Rule 5 of the Examination and the request may be considered by the Commission, if the same is made latest by the date of the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2024 which is 04.08.2024. All communication in this regard should contain the following particulars:- 1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION 2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID) 3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED) 4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS) 5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION. 6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL I.D. (IV) Minimum Educational Qualifications: A candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree of a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification. NOTE 1 : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year 2024 will also be eligible for admission to the examination. Such candidates will be admitted to the examination if otherwise eligible but the admission would be deemed to be provisional and subject to cancellation if they do not produce proof of having passed the requisite examination along with the Detailed Application Form which will be required to be submitted online by the candidates who after qualifying on the result of the written part of the examination are also declared qualified in the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should have been issued latest by closing date of Detailed Application Form of the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2024. NOTE II : In exceptional cases, the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who does not have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate, provided that he/she has passed an examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination. NOTE III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination. V. Restriction on re-appearance of candidates finally selected/ recommended earlier: A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of Assistant Commandants in any of the forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination for recruitment of Assistant Commandants in the participating CAPFs. VI. Physical Standards : Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical Standards for admission to Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants), Examination, 2024 specified in Appendix-V of the Notice. VII. Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificates : Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These qualifications will be given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only. 8 4. FEE: Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using Internet Banking of any Bank. Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 13.05.2024 i.e. one day before the closing date; however applicants who have generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is deactivated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-inslip will have no other offline option but to opt for available online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 18:00 Hours of 14.05.2024. Note: 1. Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected. Note: 2. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection. Note: 3. For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission’s website within two weeks after the last day of submission of Online Application. The applicants shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible. ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/ SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCRIBED FEE. 5. HOW TO APPLY : (a) Candidates are required to apply Online using the link https://www.upsconline.nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. Modification in OTR Profile: In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at OTR platform. The change in OTR profile data shall be available till expiry of 07 days from the next day after the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In case, the candidate after registration of OTR applies for the first time in this examination last date of modification of OTR would be 21.05.2024. Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile): The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form for this examination from next day of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 07 days from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from 15.05.2024 to 21.05.2024. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her 9 OTR profile during this period, then he/she should log into the OTR platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the OTR profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. Withdrawal of Application: The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after submission of the same. Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website. ‘No’ queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect of correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due diligence and caution as the timely completion of examination process is of paramount importance. (b) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. Persons already in Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as workcharged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their application will be liable to be rejected/ candidature will be liable to be cancelled. NOTE 1: While filling in his/her Online Application Form, the candidate should carefully decide about his/her choice for the Centre for the Examination. If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her e-Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be evaluated and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation. NOTE 2: Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances. NOTE 3: Candidates are not required to submit Hard Copy of their applications to the Commission at this stage. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination, Physical and Medical Standards Tests and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Interview/Personality Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination, Physical and Medical Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Interview/ Personality Test, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they will render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 14 of the Rules for the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2024 reproduced below : (1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :— (a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:- (i) offering illegal gratification to; or (ii) applying pressure on; or (iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or (b) impersonation; or (c) procuring impersonation by any person; or (d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or (e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or (f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or 10 (g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :- (i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or (ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; or (iii) influencing the examiners; or (h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or (i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or (j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or (k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination; or (l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or (m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or (n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :- (i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them; (ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government; Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :- (i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and (ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration. (2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above. Note: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be allowed to continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of the said examination. 6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS : (i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 14th May, 2024 till 18:00 Hours, after which the link will be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is available at Appendix-II. (ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same. 7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION: The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases: (i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-admission Certificate on the last working day of preceding week of the date of the Examination. The e-Admission Certificate will be made available 11 in the UPSC website [https://www.upsc.gov.in] for downloading by candidates. No paper Admission Certificate will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admission Certificate/e-Admit Card the candidate must have his/her vital parameters like RID & Date of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father's name & Date of Birth available with him/her. If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admission Certificate or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination three days before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/011- 23385271/011-23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s office from the candidate regarding nonreceipt of his/her e-admission certificate at least three days before the commencement of the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admission Certificate. No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an eadmission certificate for the examination. On the receipt of e-Admission Certificate, candidates should check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination would be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the application form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions by the UPSC. The mere fact that an e-admission certificate to the Examination has been issued to a candidate will not imply that the Commission has finally cleared his/her candidature or that the Commission has accepted entries made by the candidate in his/her application for the Examination as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission will take up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has qualified the Central Armed Police Forces (Written) Examination. Unless the Commission formally confirms candidature, it continues to be provisional. The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admission Certificate in some cases may be abbreviated due to technical reasons. (ii) The candidates must ensure that their E-Mail IDs given in their Online Applications are valid and active as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination processes. (iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address stated in his/her application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the Commission make every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the matter. (iv) Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an e-Admission Certificate issued in respect of another candidate. IMPORTANT : ALL COMMUNICATIONS TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY CONTAIN THE FOLLOWING PARTICULARS. 1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION 2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID) 3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED) 4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS) 5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION. 6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL ID. N.B.I : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. Candidates are strongly advised to keep a print out or soft copy of their online application for future references. 8. SERVICE ALLOCATION: Service Allocation will be made on the basis of position in the Merit List and the Service Preferences, which will have to be indicated by the candidates at the time of filling up the Detailed Application Form before the Physical and Medical Standards Tests and the Physical Efficiency Tests. Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant Commandants. 12 Alongwith the on-line Detailed Application Form (DAF) scanned documents in support of date of birth, category (viz., SC/ST/OBC {OBC Annexure (for OBC category only)}, EWS {EWS Annexure (for EWS category only)} and other requisite documents are required to be mandatorily submitted. Any delay in submission of the DAF or documents in support beyond the prescribed date will not be allowed and will lead to cancellation of the candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2024. The DAF and/or supporting documents sent through any mode other than the online mode, as may be made available by the UPSC on its website, will not be accepted. 9. OTHER DETAILS: For other details regarding the Examination, the candidates may refer to the Appendices as specified below : (a) Selection Procedure/Scheme and syllabus of Examination Appendix-I (b) Instructions to candidates for filling up the Online Application Form Appendix-II (c) Special Instructions for Objective Type Tests Appendix-III (d) Special Instructions for Conventional Type Tests Appendix-IV (e) Physical and Medical Standards Appendix-V (Vinod Kumar) Under Secretary Union Public Service Commission APPENDIX - I SELECTION PROCEDURE/SCHEME AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION (A) Selection Procedure/Scheme: - The Selection Procedure/Scheme of the Examination will be as follows: (i) Written Examination: The written examination to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission will be held on 04th August, 2024 and will comprise two papers. Paper I will be held from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 Noon and Paper II will be held from 2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence - 250 Marks The questions in this paper will be of Objective (Multiple Answers) Type in which the questions will be set in English as well as Hindi. Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension - 200 Marks In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or Hindi, but the medium of Precis Writing, Comprehension Components and other communications/language skills will be English only. NOTE-I : Candidates should ensure that in Paper II they write the answers only in the medium allowed by the Commission for the different Components as mentioned above. No credit will be given for answers written in a medium other than the one allowed in the Paper. Candidates will be required to indicate the medium of Essay Component in the Attendance Lists and on the Answer Book. No credit will be given for the Essay Component if the candidate indicates a medium on the Attendance List and on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has written the Essay. NOTE-II: There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will be done only of those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I. (ii) Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests : Candidates who are declared qualified in the written examination will be summoned for Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests. Those candidates who meet the prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix-VI, will be put through the Physical Efficiency Tests as indicated below : Physical Efficiency Tests (PET) Males Females (a) 100 Meters race In 16 seconds In 18 seconds (b) 800 Meters race In 3 minutes 45 seconds In 4 minutes 45 seconds (c) Long Jup 3.5 Meters 3.0 meters (3 chances) (3 chances) (d) Shot Put (7.26 Kgs.) 4.5 Meters — 13 (3 chances) On reporting of female candidates for PST (Physical Standard Test)/PET (Physical Efficiency Test), a self declaration indicating about her pregnancy status shall be submitted. In case, if she declares that she is not pregnant then she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET. In case of false declaration, all the risk for undergoing PST/PET will be of her own. If the female candidate declares that she is pregnant before PST/PET, then a confirmatory pregnancy test to be done and in case she is found to be pregnant, irrespective of duration of pregnancy, she may be declared temporarily unfit and her appointment shall be held in abeyance until the confinement is over. The vacancy against which a woman candidate was selected should be kept reserved for her. She will be re-examined for PST/PET six weeks after the date of confinement was over, subject to the production of the medical certificate of fitness from a registered medical practitioner. If she is found fit in PST/PET & DME, she may be appointed to the post kept reserved for and allow the benefit of seniority in accordance with the instructions of the Government, as amended from time to time. In case female candidates are found negative for pregnancy, she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET. Medical Standards Tests, to check the standards specified in Appendix-V, will be conducted only in respect of candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical Efficiency Test. The Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These tests will be conducted at various centres to be notified after the results of the written examination. Appeals will be entertained only against the Medical Standards Tests and will have to be made to the Appellate Authority designated by the Ministry of Home Affairs within 24 Hours after declaration of the results DME. (iii) Interview/Personality Test : Candidates who are declared qualified in the Medical Standards Tests, will be called for Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission. Candidates who are declared medically unfit but allowed to appear before the “Review Medical Board” on their appeal by the Appellate Authority will be called for Interview/Personality Tests provisionally. The Interview/Personality Test will carry 150 Marks. Candidates who are short-listed for Interview/Personality Test, including those shortlisted for Interview/Personality Test provisionally will be issued a Detailed Application Form (DAF) in which among other things, they will be required to indicate their preference of Forces. (iv) Final Selection / Merit : The merit list will be drawn on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test. (B) Syllabi of the Written Papers:- Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas: 1. General Mental Ability The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including numerical ability, and data interpretation. 2. General Science The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance like Information Technology, Biotechnology, Environmental Science. 3. Current Events of National and International Importance: The questions will test the candidates’ awareness of current events of national and international importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation, and interplay among nations. 4. Indian Polity and Economy: The questions shall aim to test candidates’ knowledge of the Country’s political system and the Constitution of India, social systems and public administration, economic development in India, regional and international security issues and human rights including its indicators. 5. History of India : The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects. This shall also include the areas of growth of nationalism and freedom movement. 6. Indian and World Geography: The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to India and the World. Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension 14 Part-A – Essay questions which are to be answered in long narrative form either in Hindi or English totaling 80 Marks. The indicative topics are modern Indian history especially of the freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy, knowledge of security and human rights issues, and analytical ability. Part-B – Comprehension, précis writing, other communications/language skills – to be attempted in English only (Marks 120) – The topics are Comprehension passages, précis writing, developing counter arguments, simple grammar and other aspects of language testing. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ APPENDIX- II INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATIONS Candidates are required to apply Online using the website www.upsconline.nic.in. Salient features of the system of Online Application Form are given hereunder: • Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website. • Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application Form containing two stages viz. Part-I and Part-II as per the instructions available in the above mentioned site through drop down menus. • The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) [excepting SC/ST/Female candidates who are exempted from payment of fee] either by remitting the money in any branch of State Bank of India by cash, or by using any Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using net banking of any Bank.  Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and signature.  The candidate should have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving License/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. This photo ID will be used for all future references and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for the examination.  The Online applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 24th April, 2024 to 14th May, 2024 till 18:00 Hrs. • The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-Mail IDs as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process. • The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the e-mail address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder. • Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of Online Applications. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- APPENDIX- III Special Instruction to candidates for objective type tests 1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality black ball pen for making responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator. 2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets, rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s), etc. Mobile phones or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these 15 instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones etc. to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. 3. Penalty for wrong Answers (in Objective Type Papers) THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BYA CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. 4. Unfair means strictly prohibited No candidates shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give not obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. 5. Conduct in Examination Hall No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised. 6. Answer Sheet Particulars (i) Write in black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by Test Booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the Answer Sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number with black ball pen in the circles provided for the purpose in the Answer Sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the Test Booklet or Answer Sheet is unnumbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet replaced. (ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. (iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the Test Booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet of the same series and subject. 7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the Answer Sheet/Test Booklet/sheet for rough work. 8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the Answer Sheet. 9. Since the Answer Sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the Answer Sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the Answer Sheet on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. The candidate must mark responses in the Answer Sheet with good quality black ball pen. 10. Method of marking answers In the "OBJECTIVE TYPE" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as "Responses") are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response. 16 In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. from 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best, you have to mark your response by completely blackening to indicate your response. Ink pen or pencil should not be used for blackening the circle on the Answer Sheet. For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) (c) (d) 11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below :- i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent) ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No. iv) Write the Answer Sheet serial No. and also blacken the corresponding circles below v) Append signature in the relevant column 12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit. 13. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of prescribed time period of the examination. Annexure How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the Answer Sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it. As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found unnumbered he/she should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.। You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus: कɅ ġ ͪवषय ͪवषय कोड अनĐमांक ------- -------- ------------- ----------- Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the General Studies Paper and your Roll No. is 081276 and your Test Booklet series is ‘A’, you should fill in thus, using ball pen. * This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to the Examination concerned. कɅ ġ ͪवषय ͪवषय कोड अनĐमाकं ------- -------- ------------- 9 9 ----------- 0 8 1 2 7 6 Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number DELHI General Ability You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi. The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet. Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit black pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded. Writing and any zero(s) which may be there. The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles 17 provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For General Ability subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 99. Do it thus. पिुèतका Đम ͪवषय कोड Booklet Series (A) Subject Code 9 9 ------------------------ -------------------------- 0 0 B 1 1 > 2 2 C 3 3 D 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and below the subject code blacken completely the Circles for ‘9’ (in the first vertical column) and ’9’ (in the second vertical column). You should then encode the Roll No. 081276. Do it thus similarly. अनĐु मांक Roll Numbers 0 8 1 2 7 6 0 0 0 0 0 Important : Please ensure that you have 1 1 1 1 1 have carefully encoded your subject, Test 2 2 2 2 2 Booklet Series and Roll Number. 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 * This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to your Examination. 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- APPENDIX- IV Special instructions to Candidates for Conventional Type papers 1. Answers to be written in own hand Write the answers in your own hand in ink. Pencil may be used for rough work. 2. Check Answer Book 18 The candidate must write his/her roll number (and not his/her name) only in the space provided for the purpose on every answer book used by him/her. Before writing in the answer book, please see that it is complete. In case there are any missing pages, it should be got replaced. Do not tear out any pages from the Answer Book. If you use more than one Answer Book, indicate on the cover of first Answer Book the total number of Answer Books used. Do not leave any blank, unused spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, score them out. 3. Answers in excess of prescribed number will be ignored The candidate must attempt questions strictly in accordance with the directions given on each question paper. If questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed number only questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued and the remaining answers will be ignored. 4. Questions relating to précis should be attempted only on précis sheets to be supplied on demand by the invigilators. Precis sheet, whether used or not, should be placed inside the answer books and fastened along with the additional answer book(s), if any. Candidates who fail to observe this instruction will be penallised. Do not write your roll number on these sheets. 5. Unfair means strictly prohibited Do not copy from the papers of any other candidates nor allow your papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. It will be responsibility of every candidate to ensure that his/her answers are not copied by another candidate. Failure to do so will invite penalty, as may be awarded by the Commission for adoption of unfair means. 6. Conduct in Examination Hall Do not misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the examination hall or harass or bodily harm the staff deployed for the conduct of examination. You will be severely penalized if you attempt to do so. 7. Please read carefully and abide by the instructions printed on the Question Paper and on the Answer Book supplied in the Examination Hall. APPENDIX- V PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS IN THE CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES. APPENDIX- V(A) (1) Physical Standards: The minimum requirements for the candidate are as follows: Men Women Height 165 cm 157 cm Chest 81 cm (Not applicable) (unexpanded) (with 5 cm minimum expansion) Weight 50 kg. 46 kg. Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in Appendix-II(B). (2) Medical Standards: (a) Eye Sight: Better eye (corrected vision) Worse eye (corrected vision) Distant vision 6/6 6/12 OR 6/9 6/9 Near Vision N6 N9 (corrected) (corrected) With Glasses/LASIK Surgery* Limits of Refractive errors permitted -4.00 D (including cylinder) Myopia +4.00 D (including cylinder) Hypermetropia Colour Perception-III (CP-III) by ISIHARA plates. * LASIK surgery correction is permitted subject to prescribed criteria as below :- a) Age - 18-35 years b) Axial-length - 21-26 mm. c) Corneal-thickness 425 micron 19 d) Pre LASIK error - 6 D e) Post operative - Should be stable period refractive flap f) Interval - 06 months (post operative period mandatory (Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for recruitment in CAPFs). (b) Carrying angle: Carrying angle should not be more than 15˚ for male and 20˚ for female. (c) Ear: i) Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge. ii) Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like atresia of the meatus, exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of ear passage and should not have history of recurrent earache, tinnitus and vertigo. (d) Nose: Candidates should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular ulceration, chronic sinusitis. (e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or other swelling of neck, inability to extend the neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical vertebrae. (f) Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication. Candidate should not have severe pyorrhea. (g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should not have active signs of clinical VD. (h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like Leprosy, chronic dermatitis, extensive Pityriasis Versicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc. (3) General Standards: a) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering. b) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type of arthritis, high blood pressure, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease. c) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in the body. d) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, Pigeon chest, with rickety rosary efects. Heart and lungs should be sound. e) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall be perfect motion of all joints. f) Should not have any old/mal united fracture of bones. g) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints. h) Feet and toes should be well formed i) Should not have congenital malformation or defects. (Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for recruitment in CAPFs). j) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired constitution. k) Candidate should have no disease of the genito urinary tract. l) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia. m) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size. n) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins. o) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties. (4) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per minute) or BRADYCARDIA (Less than 50 per minute). (5) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum. (6) Tattoo Clause: (a) Content : Being a secular country, the religious sentiments of our countrymen are to be respected and thus, tattoos depicting religious symbol or figures and the name, as followed in Indian Army are to be permitted. (b) Location : Tattoos marked on traditional sites of the body like inner aspect of forearm but only left forearm, being non saluting limb or dorsum of the hands are to be allowed. (c) Size : Size must be less than ¼ of the particular part (Elbow or Hand) of the body. Note : 1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued by MHA UO dated 20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO’s and NGO’s in the CAPFs & AR and Review Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniforms 20 guidelines for RME in CAPFs & ARs for GO’s & NGO’s vide MHA UO No.E32012/ADG(Med)/DME&RME/ DA-1/2020 (Part File)/1166 dated 31.05.2021. 2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard Tests. Those candidates who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests will be allowed to appear before the Review Medical Board preferably on the next day of Detailed Medical Examination. APPENDIX- V(B) Male Average Body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups and Heights Female Average body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups - Heights Height in CMs Age in years 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37 148 34.5-42.5 37-45 38.5-47 39.5-48.5 150 36.5-44.5 37.5-45.5 39-48 40.5-49.5 153 38-46 39-48 41-50 42-51 155 38.5-47.5 40-49 41.5-50.5 43-52.5 158 40.5-49.5 42-51 43-53 44.5-54.5 160 41.5-50.5 43-52.5 44-54 45.5-54.5 163 43-52.5 44-54 46-56 47-57 165 44-54 45.5-55.5 47-58 48.5-59.5 168 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5  The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights (in cms). In respect of height in between, the principle of ‘Average’ may be utilized for calculating body weights.  For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm of increase or decrease in height may be added or subtracted respectively. APPENDIX- VI APPENDIX- VI(A) PROFORMA OF CERTIFICATE FOR EMPLOYED PERSONNEL 1. It is informed that Shri/Kum./Smt. ……………….. working as …………….. (Rank) in ……………. (Unit/ Office) has applied for the post of ……………….. as advertised by ……………………… (name of recruiting agency) vide Advt. No………………….. dated ………… 2. I hereby, with the information available, verify in respect of Shri/Kum./Smt. ………………….. (Name) No………………. (Rank), as follows :- Height in CMs Age in years 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37 156 44-54 46-56 47-58 48-59 158 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5 160 46-56 47.5-58.5 49.5-60.5 50.5-61.5 162 47-58 49-60 50.5-61.5 52-63 164 48-59 50-61 52-63.5 53-65 166 49.5-60.5 51.5-62.5 53-65 54.5-66.5 168 51-62 52.5-64.5 54.5-66.5 56-68 170 52-64 54-66 56-68 57.5-70.5 172 54-66 55.5-67.5 57-70 59-72 174 55-67 57-70 59-72 61-74.5 176 56.5-69 58.5-71.5 60.5-73.5 62-76 178 57.5-70.5 60-73 61.5-75.5 63.5-77.5 180 59--72 61-75 63.5-77.5 65.5-80 182 61-74.5 62.5-76.5 65-79 66.5-81.5 184 63-77 64.5-78.5 66.5-81.5 68.5-83.5 186 63.5-77.5 65.5-80.5 68-83 70-86 188 65-79 67.5-82.5 70-85.5 71.5-87.5 190 66-81 68.5-83.5 70.5-86.5 72.5-88.5 21 i. He/She will be completing the prescribed period of engagement of ……………. Years (in words) for acquiring Ex-servicemen status, subject to fulfillment of other conditions, on …………. (date). Shri/Kum./Smt. …………….. shall completes …………….. years of service (in words) at the time of leaving of military service. ii. He/She will be released on selection to the posts. Commanding Officer Place : (Signature) Dated : Office Seal APPENDIX – VI(B) FORM OF UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR CIVIL POSTS UNDER EX-SERVICEMEN CATEGORY I understand that if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which this application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to the satisfaction of Appointing Authority that I have been duly released/retired/discharged from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to ex-servicemen in terms of the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time. 2. I also understand that as per DoPT OM No.36034/1/2014-Estt.(Res.) dated 14.8.2014, if I apply for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, I can avail of the benefit of reservation as Ex-servicemen for any subsequent employment provided that to avail of this benefit, as soon as I join any civil employment, I should give self-declaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about date-wise details of application for various vacancies for which I had applied for before joining the initial civil employment, in respect of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-servicemen. Signature of the candidate Place : Dated : *************