IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 : Here You Can Get All The Current And Upcoming Information Related To IIT JEE (Advanced) Exam 2024. Like Important Dates, Application Fees, Qualification, IIT JEE (Advanced) Exam Age Limit, Selection Process, Syllabus, Exam Pattern, Exam Date, IIT JEE (Advanced) Exam Admit Card, Answer Key, Merit List, Result, Question Paper and More.JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 IIT JEE (Advanced) Admission Exam 2024 1. Indian Institutes of Technology Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) are institutions of national importance established through Acts of Parliament for fostering excellence in education. Over the years, IITs have created a world class educational platform that is dynamically sustained through quality teaching and internationally acclaimed research with excellent infrastructure and the best available minds. The faculty and alumni of IITs occupy key positions in academia and industry throughout the world and continue to make considerable impact on all sections of the society. At present, there are twenty-three IITs across the country. The primary objectives of IITs are as follows:  To create an environment that encourages freedom of thought and pursuit of excellence and inculcate the necessary vision and self-discipline to achieve excellence.  To build a solid foundation of scientific and technical knowledge and to prepare competent and motivated engineers and scientists.  To kindle an entrepreneurial spirit among the students.  To prepare the students to become outstanding professionals and contribute to nation building. Admission to various undergraduate programs [see Clause 2: ACADEMIC PROGRAMS] across IITs is carried out through the Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) [JEE (Advanced)]. The Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2024 [JEE (Advanced) 2024] and the subsequent process of admission to the IITs shall be governed by the rules contained in this document, read in conjunction with the Business Rules of the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) 2024 (to be published separately). © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 4 ZONES, NAMES, LOCATIONS, AND ABBREVIATIONS OF THE TWENTY-THREE IITs Zone Institute City Abbreviation East Zone Indian Institute of Technology Bhubaneswar Bhubaneswar IITBBS* Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Kharagpur IITKGP Indian Institute of Technology (ISM) Dhanbad Dhanbad IIT(ISM) Indian Institute of Technology Bhilai Bhilai IITBH Central Zone Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur Kanpur IITK* Indian Institute of Technology (BHU) Varanasi Varanasi IIT(BHU) Indian Institute of Technology Indore Indore IITI NorthCentral Zone Indian Institute of Technology Delhi New Delhi IITD* Indian Institute of Technology Jammu Jammu IITJMU Indian Institute of Technology Jodhpur Jodhpur IITJ NorthEast Zone Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati Guwahati IITG* Indian Institute of Technology Patna Patna IITP North Zone Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee Roorkee IITR* Indian Institute of Technology Mandi Mandi IIT Mandi Indian Institute of Technology Ropar Ropar IITRPR South Zone Indian Institute of Technology Madras # Chennai IITM* Indian Institute of Technology Hyderabad Hyderabad IITH Indian Institute of Technology Palakkad Palakkad IITPKD Indian Institute of Technology Tirupati Tirupati IITT West Zone Indian Institute of Technology Bombay Mumbai IITB* Indian Institute of Technology Dharwad Dharwad IITDh Indian Institute of Technology Gandhinagar Gandhinagar IITGN Indian Institute of Technology Goa Goa IITGOA * Zonal Coordinating IITs to conduct JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination. # Organizing Institute, JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 5 2. Academic Programs Through JEE (Advanced), IITs offer admission into undergraduate courses leading to a Bachelors, Integrated Masters, Bachelor-Master Dual Degree in Engineering, Sciences, or Architecture. Both Bachelors and Masters degrees are awarded to candidates enrolled in the dual degree programs upon successful completion of the course curriculum requirements. In some of the IITs, students enrolled into the 4-year Bachelors program have the option to pursue B.Tech. (Honors) and/or B.Tech. with Minors. Dual Degree students may also pursue a Minor. Further, in some IITs, B.Tech. students also have the option to pursue Interdisciplinary Dual Degree, with Bachelors in the parent Department and Masters in some other Department. All the above options require fulfilment of certain academic performance related criteria as prescribed by the concerned institute. The types of academic programs offered at IITs and their minimum duration are given below*: B.Tech. Bachelor of Technology 4 years B.S. Bachelor of Science 4 years B.Arch. Bachelor of Architecture 5 years Dual Degree B.Tech.- M.Tech. Dual Degree Bachelor of Technology and Master of Technology 5 years Dual Degree B.S.-M.S. Dual Degree Bachelor of Science and Master of Science 5 years Integrated M.Tech. Integrated Master of Technology 5 years Integrated M.Sc. Integrated Master of Science 5 years * Only those academic programs for which admission is based on JEE (Advanced) examination are shown here. These Institutes also have other academic programs, viz., B.Des., M.Tech., M.Sc., Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D., Joint M.Tech.-Ph.D., M.Des., Ph.D., etc. with different admission procedure and criteria not falling under the purview of JEE (Advanced). However, not all the listed programs and courses are available in all the institutes. The relevant programs and courses offered in the academic year 2023- 24 are given in Annexure-III (COURSES OFFERED IN THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2023-24). The programs that will be offered in the academic year 2024-25 will © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 6 be announced by JoSAA 2024 during seat allocation (i.e. at the stage of fillingin of choices for admission). An academic year usually starts in the month of July and ends in the month of June of the next year. The programs are credit-based and thus offer the flexibility to progress at one’s own pace. A minimum level of performance is essential for satisfactory progress. The medium of instruction is English in all the programs. All Indian nationals who satisfy the eligibility criteria [see Clause 11: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR INDIAN NATIONALS FOR APPEARING FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2024] can appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024. The successful candidates meeting the Class XII (or equivalent) performance criterion [see Clause 26] are eligible for admission into IITs. While allotting seats, policies as per Government of India rules are followed, depending on candidates’ merit, category, and/or nationality. Foreign national candidates as also Overseas Citizen of India/Person of Indian Origin (OCI/PIO) candidates may appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024. The details of the eligibility criteria for them are available at https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html. 3. Reservation of Seats Indian nationals belonging to certain categories are admitted under the seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India. The categories and the extent of reservation are as follows:  General category candidates belonging to Economically Weaker Section (GEN-EWS) – 10% of seats in every course. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those General category candidates who satisfy the conditions given in the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. o The criteria for GEN-EWS will be as per the prevailing norms and/or notifications of the Government of India. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 7  Other Backward Classes (OBC) candidates belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer (OBC-NCL) – 27% of seats in every course. o OBCs should be listed in the current updated central list of OBCs (http://www.ncbc.nic.in). o OBCs present in the state list but not covered in the central list of OBCs (as per the list in http://www.ncbc.nic.in) are NOT eligible to claim the reservation. o The criteria for Non-Creamy Layer (OBC-NCL) will be as per the notification of Government of India.  Candidates belonging to the creamy layer of OBC are NOT entitled for reservation. Such candidates are treated as belonging to the general (GEN), i.e. unreserved category, and they will be eligible only for the OPEN seats – the seats for which all candidates are eligible.  Scheduled Caste (SC) – 15% of seats in every course.  Scheduled Tribe (ST) – 7.5% of seats in every course. o The benefit of reservation will be given only to those castes and tribes that are mentioned in the respective central list of corresponding states published by the Government of India (websites: https://socialjustice.gov.in) and https://ncst.nic.in). o Persons with Disability (PwD) with at least 40% impairment – 5% seats in each of OPEN, GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, and ST category seats. (https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/A2016- 49_1.pdf) o Candidates with at least 40% impairment irrespective of the type of disability i.e. locomotor, visual or SEVERE dyslexic shall be eligible for the benefits of PwD sub-category. o Leprosy-cured candidates who are otherwise fit to pursue the courses are also included in PwD sub-category. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 8  Candidates belonging to the GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST, and PwD categories/sub-categories will be declared as qualified on the basis of a relaxed criterion [see Clause 22: RANK LISTS]. The category of a candidate as entered in the database, which will be made available by the JEE Apex Board [which conducts the JEE (Main) 2024 examination], will be final and shall remain the same in JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination. Requests for change of category will NOT be entertained. Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of documents (and an additional physical verification at one of the IITs for candidates belonging to PwD category). If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false / fake / incorrect document, or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled. 4. Defence Service Candidates Defence Service (DS) candidates are children of defence/paramilitary personnel killed or permanently disabled in action during war or peacetime operations1 . Two seats are available for preferential allotment in each Institute for DS candidates. To avail this preferential allotment, a DS candidate must be in the Common Rank List of JEE (Advanced) 2024 [see Clause 22: RANK LISTS]. 5. Supernumerary Seats for Female Candidates Following the directions of the Ministry of Education, Government of India2 , and the decision taken by the IIT Council, supernumerary seats have been created for female candidates for improving the gender balance in the 1No. 321/Adm/Misc/Vol-I, dated 22 October, 2020. 2Reference: F.No.35-8/2017-TS.III dated 30th October, 2017. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 9 undergraduate programs in IITs. These supernumerary seats will be offered (a) to only those female candidates (Indian nationals and OCI/PIO candidates who have secured the OCI/PIO card before 04.03.2021) who are declared qualified in JEE (Advanced) 2024, and, (b) strictly based on the performance in JEE (Advanced) 2024. The number of supernumerary seats in various programs will be decided by individual IITs ensuring that every institute has at least 20% female enrolment in undergraduate program(s). The detailed procedure for implementation of the above shall be set out in the Business Rules of JoSAA 2024 (which will be made available subsequently on https://josaa.nic.in). 6. Foreign Nationals and OCI/PIO Candidates 6.1 Foreign Nationals Candidates who are NOT citizens of India (by birth or naturalized) (but not OCI/PIO candidates who have secured OCI/PIO card on or after 04.03.2021) shall be considered as foreign nationals. Seats allotted to such foreign national candidates are supernumerary with a cap of 10% of total number of seats in every course. These candidates are outside the ambit of reservation of seats under the GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST, and PwD categories/sub-categories, as specified herein. There are no separate supernumerary seats or sub-category for females in the foreign national supernumerary seats. The foreign national candidates, at the time of registering for JEE (Advanced) 2024 are NOT required to write JEE (Main) 2024 and may register for JEE (Advanced) 2024 directly subject to fulfilment of other eligibility criteria (for details foreign candidates may refer to https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html). © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 10 6.2 OCI/PIO Candidates As per the decision dated February 03, 2023 passed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India in Writ Petition (Civil) 891 / 20213 , the OCI/PIO candidates who have secured OCI/PIO card before 04.03.2021 shall be considered as Indian nationals. At the time of seat allocation, the OCI/PIO candidates who have secured OCI/PIO card before 04.03.2021 shall be considered for the seats in the OPEN category3 . These OCI/PIO candidates shall be included in the Common Rank List (CRL), and/or CRL-PwD list as also for the Female Supernumerary seats, as applicable, subject to qualifying the JEE (Advanced) 2024 [see Clause 22: Rank List]. These OCI/PIO candidates are NOT entitled to the benefit of reservation under the GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC or ST categories for the allocation of seats. 7. Other Institutes admitting using JEE (Advanced) rank Some centrally funded institutes (listed below) have used JEE (Advanced) ranks in the past. These include:  Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru  Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research (IISERs) located in Berhampur, Bhopal, Kolkata, Mohali, Pune, Thiruvananthapuram, and Tirupati  Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST), Thiruvananthapuram  Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT), Rae Bareli  Indian Institute of Petroleum & Energy (IIPE), Visakhapatnam Candidates should contact these institutes directly for additional information regarding admission. 3 Reference: Decision dated February 03, 2023 passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 891/2021. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 11 PART II: THE EXAMINATION © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 12 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 13 8. The Examination The Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2024 [JEE (Advanced) 2024] will be conducted by the seven Zonal Coordinating IITs under the guidance of the Joint Admission Board 2024 (JAB 2024). The performance of a candidate in JEE (Advanced) 2024 will form the basis for admission to the Bachelors, Integrated Masters, and Dual Degree programs (entry at the 10+2 level), mentioned in Clause 2, in all the IITs in the academic year 2024-25. The decisions of JAB 2024 will be final in all matters related to JEE (Advanced) 2024 and admission to IITs in the academic year 2024-25. 9. Schedule of JEE (Advanced) 2024 The examination consists of two papers (Paper 1 and Paper 2) of three hours duration each. Appearing in both the papers is compulsory. The examination schedule is as follows. Date of Examination May 26, 2024 (Sunday) Paper 1 09:00 IST to 12:00 IST Paper 2 14:30 IST to 17:30 IST It may be noted that the examination date will remain unchanged even if it is declared a public holiday. PwD candidates having disabilities with at least 40% impairment as applicable, are eligible for one hour compensatory time for each paper (i.e. for these candidates the end time will be 13:00 IST for Paper 1 and 18:30 IST for Paper 2). They must, however, fill in the requisite form [see Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS] during registration for availing the compensatory time and/or availing the services of a scribe (amanuensis). Please see also Clauses 14 and 15 for additional information. Persons with less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing, covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 14 under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act are also eligible for one hour compensatory time for each paper (i.e. for these candidates the end time will be 13:00 IST for Paper 1 and 18:30 IST for Paper 2). They must, however, fill in the requisite form [see Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS] during registration for availing the compensatory time and/or availing the services of a scribe (amanuensis). Please see also Clauses 14 and 15 for additional information. 10. JEE (Main) 2024 Indian nationals who wish to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024 are required to write the JEE (Main) 2024 paper for admission to B.E./B.Tech. programs conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). Foreign nationals who have studied or are studying in India/abroad at 10+2 level or equivalent and wish to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024 are NOT required to write the JEE (Main) 2024. Further information about JEE (Main) 2024 may be obtained from the website https://jeemain.nta.ac.in. For foreign nationals4 who are OCI/PIO card holders, who have studied or are studying in India/abroad at 10+2 level or equivalent and wish to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024, following are the requirements for OCI/PIO Candidates with respect to the requirement of appearing in JEE (Main):  OCI/PIO card holders who have secured OCI/PIO card before 04.03.2021, are considered as Indian nationals for the purpose of seat allocation to IITs. These candidates are not eligible for benefits of reservation (e.g., GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST with the exception of OPEN-PwD). These candidates are required to fulfil Clause 11 below and shall be required to be in the Open and Open-PwD rank lists in JEE (Main) to appear for JEE (Advanced). 4 Based on the verdict of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, dated February 03, 2023, in Writ Petition (Civil) 891 / 2021. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 15  OCI/PIO card holders who have secured OCI/PIO card on or after 04.03.2021, are considered as foreign nationals for the purpose of admission to IITs. These candidates are NOT required to write the JEE (Main) 2024 in order to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2024. Further information about JEE (Main) 2024 may be obtained from the website https://jeemain.nta.ac.in. 11. Eligibility Criteria for Indian Nationals and OCI/PIO Candidates who have Secured OCI/PIO Card before 04.03.2021 for Appearing for JEE (Advanced) 2024 All the candidates must simultaneously fulfil each and every one of the following five criteria to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024. Criterion 1 – Performance in JEE (Main) 2024: Candidates should be among the top 2,50,000 successful candidates (including all categories) in B.E./B.Tech. paper of JEE (Main) 2024. The percentages of various categories of candidates to be shortlisted are: 10% for GEN-EWS, 27% for OBC-NCL, 15% for SC, 7.5% for ST, and the remaining 40.5% is OPEN for all. Within each of these five categories, 5% horizontal reservation is available for PwD candidates. The following table shows the order to be followed while choosing the top 2,50,000 candidates in various categories based on the performance in B.E./B.Tech. paper of JEE (Main) 2024. Category-wise distribution of top 2,50,000* candidates (Criterion 1) Sl No. Category Number of “Top” candidates 1 OPEN 96187 101250 2 OPEN-PwD 5063 3 GEN-EWS 23750 25000 4 GEN-EWS-PwD 1250 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 16 5 OBC-NCL 64125 67500 6 OBC-NCL-PwD 3375 7 SC 35625 37500 8 SC-PwD 1875 9 ST 17812 18750 10 ST-PwD 938 * The total number of candidates may be slightly greater than 2,50,000 in the presence of “tied” ranks / scores in any category. OCI/PIO card holders who have secured OCI/PIO card before 04.03.2021, are considered as Indian nationals for the purpose of seat allocation to IITs. However, these candidates are not eligible for benefits of any kind of reservation (e.g., GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST) with the exception of OPEN-PwD. That is, Sl No. (3) to (10) in the above table are not applicable for such OCI/PIO card holders and these candidates are required to be in the rank list in Sl. No. 1 and / or 2 in the above table. Criterion 2 – Age limit: Candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1999. Five years age relaxation is given to SC, ST, and PwD candidates, i.e. these candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1994. Criterion 3 – Number of attempts: A candidate can attempt JEE (Advanced) maximum of two times in two consecutive years. Criterion 4 – Appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination*: A candidate should have appeared for the Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in either 2023 or 2024 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics as compulsory subjects. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 17 Candidates who had appeared in Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in 2022 or earlier, are NOT eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2024, irrespective of the combination or number of subjects attempted/offered. * By appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination, it is meant that the Board concerned declared the result for that year irrespective of whether or not examination was conducted. It will be considered as an appearance even if the result of a particular candidate got withheld. However, if the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2021-22 on or after September 21, 2022, then the candidates of that Board who appeared for their Class XII (or equivalent) examination in 2022 are also eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2024, provided they meet all the other eligibility criteria. In case the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2021-22 before September 21, 2022 but the result of a particular candidate was withheld for whatever reason, then the candidate will not be eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2024. Criterion 5 – Earlier admission at IITs: A candidate should NOT have been admitted to an IIT through JoSAA 2023 irrespective of whether or not the candidate continued in the program OR accepted an IIT seat by reporting “online” / at a “reporting centre” in the past. Candidates whose admission to IITs was cancelled (for whatever reason) after joining any IIT are also NOT eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024. Candidates who have been admitted to a preparatory course in any of the IITs for the first time in 2023 can appear in JEE (Advanced) 2024. The candidates who were allocated a seat in an IIT through JoSAA 2023 but (i) did not report “online” / at any “reporting centre” OR, (ii) withdrew before the last round of seat allotment, OR, (iii) had their seat cancelled (for © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 18 whatever reason) before the last round of seat allotment for IITs, are eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024. However, in all of the above cases, the candidate is also required to fulfil the conditions mentioned from Criterion 1 to Criterion 4. Eligibility criteria for foreign national candidates and for those OCI/PIO candidates who obtained their OCI/PIO cards on or after 04.03.2021 can be found at https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html. 12. Online Registration for JEE (Advanced) 2024 Eligibility: All Indian nationals must simultaneously satisfy each and every one of the five eligibility criteria [see Clause 11: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR INDIAN NATIONALS FOR APPEARING FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2024]. Registration will be cancelled if, at a later date, it is found that the candidate does not meet any of these five eligibility criteria. Registration Portal: Candidates MUST register for appearing for JEE (Advanced) 2024. Registration is to be done only through the online registration portal where detailed instructions for registration will be provided. For online registration https://jeeadv.ac.in Online registration begins April 21, 2024 (Sunday, 10:00 IST) Online registration closes April 30, 2024 (Tuesday, 17:00 IST) Last date for fee payment for registered candidates May 06, 2024 (Monday, 17:00 IST) Foreign nationals and OCI/PIO candidates (with OCI/PIO cards obtained on or after 04.03.2021) may check the link: https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 19 13. Registration Fee for JEE (Advanced) 2024 Candidates who wish to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2024 must pay the registration fee, as mentioned in the following table. Registration Fee for Examination Centres in India Indian Nationals Female Candidates (all categories) ₹ 1600 SC, ST, and PwD Candidates ₹ 1600 All Other Candidates ₹ 3200 OCI/PIO card holders (where the OCI/PIO card was issued before 04-03- 2021) Female Candidates (GEN and GEN-PwD) ₹ 1600 OPEN (GEN-PwD) ₹ 1600 OPEN (GEN) ₹ 3200 Foreign Nationals & OCI/PIO card holders (where the OCI/PIO card was issued on or after 04- 03-2021) Candidates Residing in SAARC Countries USD 100 # Candidates Residing in NonSAARC Countries USD 200 # # Or equivalent in INR Registration Fee for Examination Centres in Foreign Countries Indian Nationals and OCI/PIO card holders (where the OCI/PIO card was issued before 04-03-2021) All USD 100# Foreign Nationals & OCI/PIO card holders (where the OCI/PIO card was issued on or after 04-03-2021) Candidates Residing in SAARC Countries USD 100# Candidates Residing in Non-SAARC Countries USD 200# © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 20  The registration fee shown above DOES NOT INCLUDE service charges, processing fees, and any other charges that the payment gateway/banks may levy. Registration fee once paid is non-refundable and non-transferable. All candidates have to reach the examination centre at their own expense and have to make their own arrangements to appear for the examination.  Detailed instructions related to the payment of registration fee will be provided at the time of JEE (Advanced) 2024 registration on the online registration portal. 14. Services of a Scribe  As per office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment5 the PwD candidates who are visually impaired OR dyslexic (severe) OR have disability in the upper limbs OR have lost fingers / hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis).  As per the office memorandum of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment6 candidates with less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis). These candidates would also be governed by Clause 15 below. These candidates would also be required to upload the requisite certificate duly signed by Medical Authority.  Candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the online registration of JEE (Advanced) 2024.  The scribe will help the candidate only in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as per the directions of the candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solutions.  To avail the services of scribe, the candidate should request the Chairperson, JEE (Advanced) 2024, of the nearest Zonal Coordinating IIT in the prescribed format (FORM-SCRIBE [I/II, whichever is applicable]). The requisition, 5Reference: F.No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018 6Reference: F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated August 10, 2022 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 21 along with a copy of the PwD certificate (FORM PwD-II/PwD-III/PwD-IV, whichever is applicable]) OR copy of the certificates of Dyslexic Candidate (FORM-DYSLEXIC-1 and DYSLEXIC-2), whichever is applicable, OR copy of the certificate (FORM-DISABILITY AND HAVING DIFFICULTY IN WRITING) for the person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2(S) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(R) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing, must be uploaded at the time of online registration for JEE (Advanced) 2024. The formats for the request letter and PwD/Dyslexic are given in Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS. The formats for the request letter, and person with less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing certificate are also given in Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS.  Zonal coordinating IITs will make necessary arrangements, through the Test Centre Administrator (TCA) of the Examination Centre, to provide a panel of scribes (amanuenses). Scribes will be students of Class XI from the science stream with Mathematics as one of the subjects. The PwD/dyslexic (severe)/ persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing candidate has to choose a scribe from this panel. The candidates will NOT be allowed to bring their own scribes.  The candidate will be allowed to meet the panel of scribes one day prior to the examination i.e. May 25, 2024 (Saturday) in the presence of the IIT Representatives (IRs), Test Centre Administrator (TCA), and an Invigilator, and choose any one of the scribes. o If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and / or availed the compensatory time, but does not possess the requisite extent of disability, and/or does not have difficulty in writing, that warrants the use of a scribe and / or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking, and © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 22 admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled. 15. Documents Required for Registration Given below is a list of documents/certificates whose scanned copies are to be uploaded at the time of online registration for JEE (Advanced) 2024. The formats of the certificates, which are indicated in the brackets, are given in Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS. The candidates may note that documents for the purpose of admission to an IIT would only be verified at the stage of document verification when the candidate accepts the seat offered through JoSAA. Thus, candidates are advised to upload the correct and complete documentation at the stage of registration itself. All candidates  Class X certificate if the date of birth is mentioned in it OR birth certificate.  Class XII (or equivalent examination) certificate [for those who appeared first time for this examination in 2023 or 2024 or whose Board declared the Class XII (or equivalent examination) result of academic session 2021-22 on or after September 21, 2022]. If marksheet of Class XII (or equivalent examination) for 2024 is available, then it must be uploaded.  If the candidate’s name is not same as in the Class X certificate, gazette notification showing the change of name. For Candidates seeking admission under the GEN-EWS category  GEN-EWS certificate (FORM-GEN-EWS) should have been issued on or after April 01, 2024 in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India.  If any GEN-EWS candidate fails or is unable to submit the GEN-EWS certificate (issued on or after April 01, 2024) at the time of online registration, © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 23 the candidate has to upload a declaration [Declaration in Lieu of GEN-EWS Certificate] to that effect7 . For Candidates seeking admission under the OBC-NCL category  OBC-NCL certificate (FORM-OBC-NCL) should have been issued on or after April 01, 2024 in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any OBC-NCL candidate fails or is unable to submit the OBC-NCL certificate (issued on or after April 01, 2024) at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration [Declaration in Lieu of OBC-NCL Certificate] to that effect. Visit http://www.ncbc.nic.in for latest guidelines and updates on the Central List of State-wise OBCs. For Candidates seeking admission under the SC or ST category  Caste (for SC) or tribe (for ST) certificate (FORM-SC/ST), as per the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any SC/ST candidate fails or is unable to submit the SC/ST certificate at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration [Declaration in Lieu of SC/ST Certificate] to that effect. For Candidates seeking admission under the PwD category  Physical Disability certificate (Unique Disability Identification (UDID) Certificate or FORM-PwD [II/III/IV, whichever is applicable]) issued by the notified medical authority.  Dyslexic candidates need to submit FORM-DYSLEXIC-1 and FORMDYSLEXIC-2 instead of FORM-PwD. The certificate must mention ‘SEVERE’ under Dyslexia category to enable the candidate to get the benefit of PwD category. 7Reference: No.F.No.20013/01/2018-BC-II © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 24  Individual IITs constitute medical boards at the time of admission to test the candidate’s level of disability. The opinion of the medical board shall be final and on this basis, the benefit of PwD category may be allowed or withheld. If the benefit is withheld, the admission to the concerned IIT may be cancelled. For candidates opting for compensatory time  Letter to the Chairperson of the nearest Zonal Coordinating IIT by filling FORM-COMPENSATORY TIME-I/II [see ANNEXURE II: CERTIFICATE FORMAT] along with the copy of the Disability Certificate/Disability and having difficulty in writing Certificate. o If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed of compensatory time, but does not possess the requisite extent of disability, and/or does not have difficulty in writing, that warrants the same, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled. As with the case of PwD candidates, the opinion of medical board constituted by individual IIT shall be final. For Candidates needing the services of a scribe  Request letter to the Chairperson of the nearest Zonal coordinating IIT by filling FORM-SCRIBE-I/II [see ANNEXURE II: CERTIFICATE FORMAT] along with the copy of the Disability Certificate/Disability and having difficulty in writing Certificate. o If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed of the services of a scribe, but does not possess the requisite extent of disability, and/or does not have difficulty in writing, that warrants the same, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled. As with the case of PwD candidates, the opinion of medical board constituted by individual IIT shall be final. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 25 For Candidates seeking admission under the DS category8  Certificate (FORM-DS) issued by respective record offices of Armed Forces Personnel. For candidates whose Class XII Examination Board is outside India or not listed in Clause 25 [see Clause 25: EXAMINATIONS CONSIDERED EQUIVALENT TO CLASS XII]:  A certificate from the Association of Indian Universities to the effect that the examination qualified by the candidates is equivalent to the Class XII examination. Foreign national candidates (as also OCI/PIO candidates) should visit the link: https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html 16. Admit Card  Candidates who successfully register for JEE (Advanced) 2024 can download the admit card from the online registration portal: https://jeeadv.ac.in. Admit card downloading schedule May 17, 2024 (Friday, 10:00 IST) to May 26, 2024 (Sunday, 14:30 IST)  The admit card will bear the following details of the candidate: Name, Roll number for JEE (Advanced) 2024, photograph, signature, date of birth, address for correspondence and category.  In addition, the admit card will have the name and address of the examination centre allotted to the candidate.  Candidates should carefully examine the entries in the admit card and in case of any discrepancy, they should contact the Chairperson, JEE (Advanced) 2024 of the respective Zonal coordinating IIT. 8No. 321/Adm/Misc/Vol-I, dated 22 October, 2020 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 26  In case of any problem in downloading the admit card, the candidate should immediately contact the Zonal Chairperson, JEE (Advanced) 2024.  A printout of the downloaded admit card and a valid ORIGINAL photo identity card (any one of the following: Aadhaar Card, School/College/Institute ID, Driving License, Voter ID, Passport, PAN Card, Notarized Certificate with photograph) MUST be produced at the time of examination, without which, the candidate will NOT be allowed to appear for the examination. 17. Question Papers  JEE (Advanced) 2024 will consist of two question papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2 of three hours duration each. Appearing for both the papers is compulsory.  Each question paper will consist of three separate sections, viz., Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. The syllabi are given in Annexure-I: SYLLABI.  The question papers will consist of questions designed to test comprehension, reasoning and analytical ability of candidates.  Negative marks may be awarded for incorrect answers for some of the questions. Details of the marking scheme will be provided in the “Instructions to Candidates” section at the time of examination.  The candidates must carefully read and adhere to the detailed instructions given in the question papers available at the time of examination.  The question papers will be in both English and Hindi languages. The candidates will have the option to choose (and also switch between) the preferred language anytime during the examination. English version will prevail in the event of any difference of opinion.  Although sufficient care will be taken for the correctness of questions, in the event that a question(s) needs to be dropped, full marks for that question(s) will be awarded to ALL candidates. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 27 18. Mode of Examination The JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination will be conducted ONLY in the Computer Based Test (CBT) mode. To attain familiarity with the CBT mode candidates are advised to take mock tests available on the website https://jeeadv.ac.in. Each candidate will be allotted a computer terminal (node) at the test centre. The welcome login screen of the CBT will display the photograph of the candidate allotted to that particular computer. For login, the candidate will have to enter the JEE (Advanced) 2024 roll number as login-id and enter the date of birth (in ddmmyyyy format) as password (e.g., if the candidate’s date of birth is 5 th September, 2005, the password to be entered would be 05092005). After login, the candidate would be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions very carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of the beginning of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen. Candidates will have the option to choose (and also switch/toggle between) their preferred language (English or Hindi) during the entire period of the examination. The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking on the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered any time during the entire duration of the examination. In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions at any time during the test, the candidate will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be automatically adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time of 3 hours (180 minutes) [4 hours © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 28 (240 minutes) for PwD candidates /Persons with less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing who opted for compensatory time] to answer the questions in each paper. Each test centre will have representatives of the technical partner administering the examination as well as representatives of one or more of the IITs. The candidates may approach these representatives, through the invigilator, in case of any difficulty during the examination. 18.1. General Instructions for Computer Based Test (CBT): a. Total duration of each paper of JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination is of 3 hours (180 minutes) [4 hours (240 minutes) for PwD candidates/Persons with less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing who opted for compensatory time] duration. b. The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer on the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination. c. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols: d. The “Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that the candidate would like to have a relook at that question. A candidate has the option of answering a question and simultaneously marking the © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 29 question “Marked for Review”. The answers to those questions will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question at any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the corresponding section. e. The candidate can collapse the question palette and thereby maximize the question viewing window by clicking on the ">" symbol that appears to the left of the question palette. To view the question palette again, the candidate can click on "<" symbol that appears on the right side of question window. f. The Candidate can change the preferred language (English or Hindi) for displaying the questions, any time during the examination, by clicking on the dropdown menu in “View In” icon provided on the right side of the screen. g. In order to view the entire question, the candidate can scroll up and down or scroll left and right of the question viewing area using the computer mouse. The candidate can click on icon to navigate to the bottom and icon to navigate to the top of the question area without scrolling. h. The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the screen. i. One Scribble Pad for doing rough work/calculations will be provided to the candidates at the start of each paper. The Scribble Pad would have a header page for the candidates to write down their Name and Registration Number. These have to be signed by the candidate and countersigned by the Invigilator. Candidates are allowed to take their © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 30 signed Scribble Pads back with them at the end of each paper of the examination. No extra scribble pad will be given to candidates. 18.2. Navigating to a Question: To navigate between sections of the question paper, a candidate needs to click on the preferred section from all the displayed sections. To navigate between questions within the same section, the candidate needs to do the following: a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right side of the screen to go to that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed question. b. Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer to any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer screen. c. Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (with or without answering it) and proceed to the next question. 18.3. Answering a Question: 1. Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type question: a. To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s). b. To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the “Clear Response” button. c. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button. d. To mark the question for review (with or without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 31 2. Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual keyboard (numeric or otherwise): a. A virtual keyboard will appear on the screen just below the question statement of these types of questions. The candidate needs to use the on-screen virtual keyboard to enter the answer in the required space with the help of the provided computer mouse. b. The answer can be changed, if required, at any time during the test. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button. c. To mark the question for review (with or without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button. Candidate will have the option to change the previously saved answer to any question, any time during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question. 18.4. Navigating through sections: 1. Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section which the candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted. 2. After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question of a section, the candidate will be taken automatically to the first question of the next section. 3. The candidate can shuffle between the sections and the questions within any section any time during the period of examination as per convenience. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 32 4. The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in every section above the question palette. 19. Cities and Towns where JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be held JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be held in selected cities and towns in India. Candidates have to compulsorily choose eight (8) cities/towns of their choice at the time of online registration. Efforts will be made to allot the city/town from among the candidate’s choices, but a different city/town may be allotted under exceptional circumstances. Requests for change of city/town will NOT be entertained under any circumstances. A tentative list of cities/towns where JEE (Advanced) 2024 examination will be held is given in the following table. JEE (Advanced) 2024 may also be conducted in a few centres outside India. The final list of examination cities/towns would be notified in the registration portal before the start of the online JEE (Advanced) 2024 registration. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 33 TENTATIVE LIST OF CITIES AND TOWNS FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2024 City/Town Code IIT BOMBAY ZONE GOA Panaji 101 Margao/Madgoan 102 GUJARAT Ahmedabad 103 Anand 104 Bhavnagar 105 Bhuj 106 Gandhinagar 107 Himatnagar 108 Jamnagar 109 Junagadh 110 Mehsana 111 Rajkot 112 Surat 113 Vadodara 114 Vapi 115 Valsad 116 KARNATAKA Bagalkot 117 Belagavi (Belgaum) 118 Bellary 119 Bengaluru 120 Davanagere 121 Dharwad-Hubballi (Hubli) 122 Hassan 123 Kalaburagi (Gulbarga) 124 Mangaluru (Mangalore) 125 Mysuru (Mysore) 126 Shivamogga (Shimoga) 127 Tumakuru (Tumkur) 128 Udupi/Manipal 129 MAHARASHTRA Ahmednagar 130 Akola 131 Amravati 132 Aurangabad 133 Bhandara 134 Chandrapur 135 Dhule 136 Jalgaon 137 Kolhapur 138 Latur 139 Mumbai 140 Nagpur 141 Nanded 142 Nashik 143 Navi Mumbai 144 Palghar 145 Pune 146 City/Town Code Raigad 147 Sangamner 148 Sangli 149 Satara 150 Solapur 151 Thane 152 Vasai 153 Wardha 154 Yavatmal 155 IIT DELHI ZONE DELHI NCR Delhi (East) 201 Delhi (North) 202 Delhi (South) 203 Delhi (West) 204 Faridabad 205 Noida 206 Gurgaon 207 JAMMU and KASHMIR Jammu 208 Srinagar 209 LADAKH Leh 210 RAJASTHAN Ajmer 211 Alwar 212 Bhilwara 213 Bikaner 214 Hanumangar 215 Jaipur 216 Jodhpur 217 Kota 218 Sikar 219 Udaipur 220 IIT GUWAHATI ZONE ARUNACHAL PRADESH Naharlagun 301 ASSAM Dibrugarh 302 Guwahati 303 Jorhat 304 Silchar 305 Tezpur 306 BIHAR Arrah 307 Aurangabad 308 Bhagalpur 309 Darbhanga 310 Gaya 311 City/Town Code Muzaffarpur 312 Patna 313 Purnea 314 Rohtas 315 MANIPUR Imphal 316 MEGHALAYA Shillong 317 MIZORAM Aizawl 318 NAGALAND Kohima 319 SIKKIM Gangtok 320 TRIPURA Agartala 321 WEST BENGAL Siliguri 322 IIT KANPUR ZONE MADHYA PRADESH Bhopal 401 Indore 402 Jabalpur 403 Sagar 404 Satna 405 Ujjain 406 UTTAR PRADESH Gorakhpur 407 Jhansi 408 Kanpur 409 Lucknow 410 Prayagraj (Allahabad) 411 Varanasi 412 IIT BHUBANESWAR ZONE ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS Port Blair 501 ANDHRA PRADESH Srikakulam 502 Visakhapatnam 503 Vizianagaram 504 CHHATTISGARH Bhilai 505 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 34 City/Town Code Bilaspur 506 Raipur 507 JHARKHAND Dhanbad 508 Hazaribagh 509 Jamshedpur 510 Ranchi 511 ODISHA Balasore 512 Berhampur (Ganjam) 513 Bhubaneswar 514 Cuttack 515 Jeypore 516 Rourkela 517 Sambalpur 518 WEST BENGAL Asansol 519 Baharampur (Murshidabad) 520 Burdwan 521 Durgapur 522 Kalyani (Nadia) 523 Kharagpur-Kolaghat 524 Kolkata (North) 525 Kolkata (South) 526 IIT MADRAS ZONE ANDHRA PRADESH Amalapuram 601 Ananthapur 602 Bhimavaram 603 Chirala 604 Chittoor 605 Eluru 606 Gudlavalleru 607 Gudur 608 Guntur 609 Kadapa 610 Kakinada 611 Kurnool 612 Markapur 613 Mylavaram 614 Narasaraopet 615 Nellore 616 Ongole 617 Rajahmundry 618 Surampalem 619 Tadepalligudem 620 Tirupathi 621 Vijayawada 622 KERALA Alappuzha 623 Kannur 624 Kasaragod 625 City/Town Code Kochi 626 Kollam 627 Kottayam 628 Kozhikode 629 Malappuram 630 Palakkad 631 Thiruvananthapuram 632 Thrissur 633 PUDUCHERRY Puducherry 634 TAMIL NADU Chennai 635 Coimbatore 636 Madurai 637 Salem 638 Thanjavur 639 Tiruchirapalli 640 Tirunelveli 641 Vellore 642 Nagercoil 643 Namakkal 644 Virudhunagar 645 TELANGANA Adilabad 646 Hyderabad 647 Karimnagar 648 Khammam 649 Kodad 650 Kothagudem 651 Mahabubnagar 652 Nalgonda 653 Nizamabad 654 Sathupally 655 Siddipet 656 Suryapet 657 Warangal 658 IIT ROORKEE ZONE CHANDIGARH Chandigarh 701 HARYANA Ambala 702 Hisar 703 Kurukshetra 704 HIMACHAL PRADESH Bilaspur 705 Hamirpur 706 Shimla 707 Mandi 708 Kangra 709 Pathankot 710 MADHYA PRADESH Gwalior 711 City/Town Code PUNJAB Amritsar 712 Bathinda 713 Jalandhar 714 Ludhiana 715 Mohali 716 Patiala 717 UTTARAKHAND Dehradun 718 Haldwani 719 Roorkee 720 UTTAR PRADESH Agra 721 Aligarh 722 Bareilly 723 Ghaziabad 724 Mathura 725 Meerut 726 Moradabad 727 Muzaffarnagar 728 Saharanpur 729 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 35 20. Important instructions to be followed on the day of the examination  Candidates MUST carry a printed copy of the downloaded admit card and their valid original photo identity card (any one of the following: Aadhaar Card, School/College/Institute ID, Driving License, Voter ID, Passport, PAN Card, Notarized Certificate with photograph) for the examination. Only candidates having a valid admit card and photo identity card will be allowed to write the examination.  The candidate’s identity will be verified at the examination centre by invigilators as well as IIT representatives. If the identity of the candidate is in doubt, the candidate may not be allowed to appear for the examination. However, the IIT authorities, at their discretion, may provisionally permit the candidate to appear for the examination after completing certain formalities. No extra time will be allowed for completing the examination in lieu of the time taken for completing these formalities. In such cases where the candidate is permitted to provisionally appear for the examination, the decision of the Zonal Chairperson, JEE (Advanced) 2024 on the issue, shall be final.  Impersonation and/or use of unfair means in the examination are considered as serious offences and will lead to disqualification of one’s candidature from JEE (Advanced) 2024 and all admission related processes. It may also lead to legal action against such candidates.  All candidates will be subjected to extensive and compulsory frisking before entering the Examination Centre. The JEE (Advanced) 2024 will issue appropriate and comprehensive instructions to the staff and other officials at the Examination Centres, including for frisking of female candidates.  Only pens, pencils, drinking water in transparent bottle, downloaded admit card and an original photo identity card are allowed to be taken inside the examination hall. The following items will NOT be allowed inside the examination centre: watches, mobile phones, Bluetooth devices, earphones, © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 36 microphones, pagers, health bands or any other electronic gadgets, any printed/blank/hand written paper, log tables, writing pads, scales, eraser, geometry/pencil-boxes, pouches, calculators, pen drives, electronic pens/Scanner, wallets, handbags, camera, goggles or similar such items.  Candidates are advised NOT to wear charm/taweez, items containing metals such as ring, bracelet, earrings, nose pin, chain/necklace, pendant, badge, brooch, clothes with big buttons. They are also advised to wear open footwear like chappals and sandals.  Any other item which could be used for unfair means, or for hiding communication devices like a microchip, camera, Bluetooth device, etc., is not permitted.  Candidates are strongly advised to bring drinking water in a transparent bottle.  Candidates must report to the examination centres well in advance, and carry out the requisite formalities which will be mentioned in the admit card. Examination centres shall remain open from 07:00 IST.  Candidates arriving at the examination centre after commencement of the examination in each paper (09:00 IST for Paper 1 and 14:30 IST for Paper 2) will not be allowed to take the examination under any circumstances. The main entrance of the examination centre will be closed at 9:00 hrs (IST) for Paper 1 and at 14:30 hrs (IST) for Paper 2.  Candidates are required to be present in the examination hall for the entire duration of each paper. They CANNOT leave the examination hall before 12:00 IST for Paper 1 and before 17:30 IST for Paper 2.  Appearing in both Paper 1 and Paper 2 is compulsory. Therefore, the responses of ONLY those candidates who have appeared for both Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be evaluated/graded.  Currently no COVID-19 related restrictions issued by Government of India are in place. In the event that the same are made applicable around the time © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 37 of examination, an appropriate message will be displayed on the JEE (Advanced) 2024 website for the information of the candidates. 21. Transmission of candidate responses and online display of answer keys  The responses of the candidates who have appeared for BOTH Paper 1 and Paper 2, recorded during the examination, will be available for viewing, downloading and printing from the JEE (Advanced) 2024 candidate portal (to visit candidate portal, refer to https://jeeadv.ac.in).  Provisional answer key is ONLY tentative and is subject to change.  The provisional answer keys for both Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be displayed on the JEE (Advanced) 2024 online portal. After the display of provisional answer keys, the candidates may submit their feedback, if any, on the candidate portal.  The final answer keys will be displayed on the website, after considering the candidates’ feedback, as per the following schedule. The marks will be awarded in accordance with the final answer key: Copy of candidate responses to be available on the JEE (Advanced) 2024 website: https://jeeadv.ac.in May 31, 2024 (Friday, 17:00 IST) Online display of provisional answer keys on https://jeeadv.ac.in June 02, 2024 (Sunday, 10:00 IST) Receiving feedback from candidates on provisional answer keys through candidate portal June 02, 2024 (Sunday, 10:00 IST) to June 03, 2024 (Monday, 17:00 IST) Online display of final answer keys on https://jeeadv.ac.in June 09, 2024 (Sunday, 10:00 IST) © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 38 22. Rank Lists  Only candidates who appear for BOTH Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be considered for ranking.  The marks obtained by a candidate in Physics in JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be equal to the marks scored in the Physics part of Paper 1 plus the marks scored in the Physics part of Paper 2. Marks obtained in Chemistry and Mathematics will be calculated in the same way.  The aggregate marks obtained by a candidate in JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be the sum of the marks awarded to the candidate in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.  Rank lists are prepared based on the aggregate marks in JEE (Advanced) 2024.  If the aggregate marks scored by two or more candidates are the same, then the following tie-break policy will be used for awarding ranks: Step 1: Candidates having higher positive marks will be awarded higher rank. If the tie breaking criterion at Step 1 fails to break the tie, then the following criterion at Step 2 will be followed. Step 2: Higher rank will be assigned to the candidate who has obtained higher marks in Mathematics. If this does not break the tie, higher rank will be assigned to the candidate who has obtained higher marks in Physics. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned the same rank.  Rank lists for preparatory courses [see Clause 28: PREPARATORY COURSES] will be prepared for SC, ST, and PwD candidates in all categories who satisfy the prescribed relaxed criteria given below.  A candidate is said to have qualified in JEE (Advanced) if he/she secures the minimum percentage of marks in each subject and in aggregate, as per respective category and as per the table given below. A candidate who © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 39 qualifies in more than one category will be considered in all the categories to which he/she belongs for the purpose of ranking.  There will be no waiting list for ranking.  Only those candidates who score the minimum prescribed marks in each subject AND also in aggregate will be included in the rank list. The minimum prescribed marks vary with the category as shown in the following table. Minimum percentage of marks prescribed for inclusion in the rank list Rank List Minimum percentage of marks in each subject Minimum percentage of aggregate marks Common rank list (CRL) 10.0 35.0 GEN-EWS rank list 9.0 31.5 OBC-NCL rank list 9.0 31.5 SC rank list 5.0 17.5 ST rank list 5.0 17.5 Common-PwD rank list (CRL-PwD) 5.0 17.5 GEN-EWS-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 OBC-NCL-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 SC-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 ST-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 Preparatory course rank lists 2.5 8.75 NOTE: (i) CRL is the rank list in which all candidates (across all categories) will be given ranks. (ii) Minimum percentage of aggregate marks may be lowered subsequently, if required, as per the MHRD directive (F.No. 28-8/2017-T.S.-I) dated June 13, 2018. 23. Results of JEE (Advanced) 2024  Results will be declared on June 9, 2024 (Sunday). Category-wise All India Ranks (AIR) of successful candidates will be available through the JEE (Advanced) 2024 online portal after the results are declared. Text messages will also be sent to the candidates to their registered mobile numbers.  Individual rank cards will NOT be sent to candidates.  Qualifying in JEE (Advanced) 2024, filling in choices and/or participating in the joint seat allocation process do not guarantee a candidate admission © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 40 to IITs. Admission will depend on merit and the availability of seats during various rounds of seat allocation. 24. Architecture Aptitude Test for B.Arch. program  B. Arch. program is available at IIT (BHU) Varanasi, IIT Kharagpur and IIT Roorkee only. Candidates desirous of joining the B. Arch. (Architecture) program will have to PASS the Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT).  Only those candidates who have qualified in JEE (Advanced) 2024 are eligible to appear in AAT 2024.  Apart from passing the Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT), the criterion of performance in Class XII (or equivalent) board examination [see Clause 26: PERFORMANCE IN CLASS XII (OR EQUIVALENT) BOARD EXAMINATION] will remain the same for B. Arch. program admission.  Syllabus for AAT is given in Annexure-I: SYLLABI.  Candidates must register online at the JEE (Advanced) 2024 online portal for AAT as per the time schedule set out below.  AAT will be conducted at all IITs.  The test will consist of one paper of three hours duration.  The question paper for AAT will be available only in the English language.  No separate admit card will be issued for AAT. The downloaded admit card of JEE (Advanced) 2024 has to be printed and produced in the AAT examination hall, along with original photo identity card.  Candidates should bring their own drawing and colouring aids.  The Joint Implementation Committee of JEE (Advanced) 2024 will decide the cut-off marks for passing AAT.  Results of AAT will be declared on the JEE (Advanced) 2024 online portal.  Candidates securing marks above the cut-off will be declared PASS in the test. There is no separate ranking in the AAT. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 41  Allotment of seats will be solely based on the category-wise All India Rank in the JEE (Advanced) 2024 and B. Arch. program will be offered only to those candidates declared PASS in the AAT. Schedule of AAT Portal for AAT Registration https://jeeadv.ac.in Online Registration for AAT June 09, 2024, (Sunday, 10:00 IST) to June 10, 2024, (Monday, 17:00 IST) Architecture Aptitude Test June 12, 2024 (Wednesday) 09:00 to 12:00 IST (Candidate must reach examination centre by 08:00 IST) Declaration of AAT Results June 15, 2024 (Saturday), 17:00 IST © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 42 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 43 PART III: ADMISSION © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 44 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 45 25. Examinations Considered as Equivalent to Class XII  The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by a Central or State Board recognized by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).  Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a Board or University recognized by the Association of Indian Universities.  Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defence Academy.  Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling with a minimum of five subjects.  Any Public School, Board or University examination in India or in a foreign country recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the AIU.  H.S.C. vocational examination.  A Diploma recognized by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) or a State Board of Technical Education of at least 3 years duration.  General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London, Cambridge or Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level.  High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.  Candidates who have completed Class XII (or equivalent) examination outside India or from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the AIU to the effect that the examination they have passed is equivalent to the Class XII examination.  In case the Class XII examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have passed at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 46 26. Performance in Class XII (or Equivalent) Board Examination for admission to IITs  The Candidates must satisfy at least one of the following two criteria with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subjects in the year of first appearance in the Class XII (or equivalent examination): 1. Must have passed class XII (or equivalent) Board examination with a minimum of five subjects and secured at least 75% aggregate marks. The aggregate marks for SC, ST and PwD candidates should be at least 65%. 2. Must have passed class XII (or equivalent) Board examination with a minimum of five subjects and be within the category-wise (category as per the central list http://www.ncbc.nic.in) top 20 percentile of successful candidates in their respective Class XII (or equivalent) board examination. The percentile calculation will be done for all the required subjects in a single academic year only. Therefore, candidates appearing for improvement in Board examinations can EITHER appear in one or more subjects and secure 75% aggregate marks (65% for SC, ST and PwD) after improvement, OR, appear for improvement in ALL subjects to be in top 20 percentile (see Section titled “Regarding the cut-off marks for the top 20 percentile”) of the corresponding academic year. In all cases, the marksheet is required to have been issued by the same examination board and marksheets from separate boards are not permitted.  The marks scored in the following five subjects will be considered for calculating the aggregate marks and the cut-off marks for fulfilling the top 20 percentile criterion. i. Physics © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 47 ii. Chemistry iii. Mathematics iv. A language (if the candidate has taken more than one language, then the language with the higher marks will be considered) v. Any subject other than the above four (the subject with the highest marks will be considered).  For calculation of the total marks for five subjects, if the marks awarded in a subject is NOT out of 100, then the marks will be scaled (up or down) to 100 so that the total aggregate marks is out of 500.  If a Board awards only letter grades without providing an equivalent percentage of marks on the grade sheet, the candidate should obtain a certificate from the Board specifying the equivalent marks and submit it at the time of acceptance of the allocated seat. In case such a certificate is not provided, the decision taken by the Joint Implementation Committee of JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be final.  For candidates who appeared in the Class XII (or equivalent) Board examination for the first time in 2023 and reappeared in ALL subjects (for whatsoever reason) in 2024, the best of the two performances will be considered.  If a Board gives aggregate marks considering both Class XI and Class XII examinations (in the 10+2 system), then only Class XII marks will be considered. If a Board gives aggregate marks considering the results of all three years of a 3-year diploma or courses of equivalent duration, then the marks scored only in the final year will be considered. Similarly, for Boards which follow a semester system, the marks scored in the final two semesters will be considered.  In case any of the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Language are not evaluated in the final year (e.g., in a 3-year diploma course), then © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 48 the marks for the same subject from the previous year/s will be used for calculating percentage of aggregate marks.  If a Board does not give marks scored in individual subjects but gives only the aggregate marks, then the aggregate marks given by the Board will be considered as such.  The above will also apply correspondingly to those candidates who first appeared for their Class XII examination in 2022 but the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2021-22 on or after September 21, 2022. For eligibility criteria foreign candidates and OCI/PIO card holders may follow the link https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.html 26.1. Regarding the cut-off marks for the top 20 percentile o The category-wise cut-off marks for the top 20 percentile are calculated based on the marks scored by the successful candidates who appeared in their respective boards for all the required subjects, in the particular year. o The cut-off marks for PwD candidates will be the same as the lowest of the cut-off marks for GEN, OBC-NCL, SC and ST categories. o It is clarified that top 20 percentile cut-off for the academic year 2023–24 will be considered against the successful candidates who appeared in the Class XII (or equivalent) examination in 2024. o Similarly, top 20 percentile cut-off for the academic year 2022–23 will be considered against the successful candidates who appeared in the Class XII (or equivalent) examination in 2023. o Candidates who appeared in Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in 2023 and wish to (or have to) reappear in 2024 with the objective to qualify through top 20 percentile cut-off criteria, © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 49 must reappear in all the subjects. For such candidates, top 20 percentile cut-off for 2024 will be considered. o In case a Board does not provide information about the cut-off for the top 20 percentile, the candidate will have to produce a certificate from the respective Board (in the format given in Annexure) stating that he/she falls within the top 20 percentile of successful candidates. If the candidate fails to do so, then the cut-off marks, in the respective categories, of the Central Board of Secondary Education will be used. o The above will also apply correspondingly to those candidates who first appeared for their Class XII examination in 2022 but the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2021-22 on or after September 21, 2022. 26.2. Regarding the aggregate marks of 75% (or 65% for SC, ST and PwD) o The aggregate marks scored by the candidate in the 2024 Class XII (or equivalent) Board examination will be considered for candidates who will appear in the Class XII examination in 2024. o The aggregate marks scored by the candidate in the 2023 Class XII (or equivalent) Board examination will be considered provided the candidate does not reappear in the Class XII (or equivalent) examination in 2024 in any of the subjects. o If a candidate had appeared in his/her Class XII (or equivalent) in 2023 and wishes to improve his/her aggregate marks to meet the “aggregate marks of 75% (or 65% for SC, ST and PwD) criterion”, he/she can reappear for any number of subjects he/she wishes for improvement. The percentage marks in this situation will be calculated by considering the marks obtained in 2023 or 2024, whichever is higher, in the respective subjects, in his/her two attempts in 2023 and 2024. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 50 o The above will also apply correspondingly for the candidates who first appeared for their Class XII examination in 2022 but the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2021-22 on or after September 21, 2022. o The marksheet submitted by the candidates for their Class XII (or equivalent) examination must be issued by a single examination Board. 27. Joint Seat Allocation  The seats across IITs, NITs, IIITs and other Government Funded Technical Institutes (GFTIs) will be offered and allocated through a common process by the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA), to be held in online mode for current year.  The candidates who secured a Rank in JEE (Advanced) 2024 are eligible to participate in Joint Seat Allocation process for a seat at an IIT.  All the candidates who are eligible for admission will have to participate in the joint seat allocation process by filling in their preferential choices of the courses and Institutes.  The detailed instructions for filling-in the choices and the seat allotment procedure will be made available by JoSAA through Seat Allotment Business Rules.  The schedule of the joint seat allocation will be announced separately by JoSAA 2024.  The list of courses that will be offered by the IITs for admission for the academic year 2024-25 will be made available at the time of online fillingin of choices. 28. Preparatory Courses  The seats reserved for SC, ST and PwD candidates which remain vacant will be allotted to the candidates of respective categories for admission to © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 51 a preparatory course of one-year duration on the basis of relaxed admission criteria [see Clause 22: RANK LISTS].  Admission is given to the candidates in the preparatory course provided (i) the seats reserved for the respective category are vacant, (ii) candidates satisfy minimum norms, and (iii) candidates have not accepted a seat in the preparatory course earlier.  Selected IITs will run preparatory courses of one-year duration for SC, ST and PwD candidates intended to prepare them to pursue the academic program (for Academic Year 2025-26) to which they have been allocated. At the end of this course, candidates are declared as ‘pass’ or ‘fail’. The institute at which one-year preparatory course is run for a candidate may be different from the institute allocated to the candidate for their academic program.  On successful completion of the course, the candidates will be offered direct admission in 2025 (Academic Year 2025-26) to the already allotted undergraduate course at the originally allocated IIT.  Candidates admitted to the preparatory course in 2024 are eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2025 subject to fulfilling other eligibility criteria.  Filling-in of choices for preparatory courses is to be completed through the JoSAA online portal. 29. Additional Requirements for Certain Courses  Those who opt for B.Tech. in Mining Engineering/Mining Machinery Engineering OR B.Tech.-M.Tech. Dual Degree in Mining Engineering/Mining Safety Engineering OR Integrated M.Tech. in Applied Geology/Applied Geophysics OR Integrated M.Sc. in Applied Geology/Exploration Geophysics, must not have any form of colour blindness. A certificate to this effect from a government registered medical © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 52 practitioner has to be uploaded at the time of online reporting for seat acceptance. IITs may constitute a medical board to test the validity of the candidate’s medical condition. The opinion of the medical board shall be final and on this basis, the admission to the concerned IIT may be cancelled if it is found that the candidate suffers from any form of colour blindness.  PwD candidates cannot opt for B.Tech. in Mining Engineering/Mining Machinery Engineering OR B.Tech.-M.Tech. Dual Degree in Mining Engineering/Mining Safety Engineering OR Integrated M.Tech. in Applied Geology/Applied Geophysics.  PwD candidates with locomotor disability cannot opt for Integrated M.Sc. in Applied Geology/Exploration Geophysics.  The standards of visual acuity with or without glasses will be adhered to strictly for candidates seeking admission to Mining Engineering as per DGMS Circular 14 of 1972. Persons with one-eyed vision are not permitted to work underground. Candidates with these limitations are not allowed to opt for admission to Mining Engineering and Mining Machinery Engineering. 30. Gender Restriction for Mining Engineering Profession  Section 46 (1) of the Mines Act, 1952 states that “No woman shall, notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, be employed (a) in any part of a mine which is below ground, (b) in any mine above ground except between 6:00 and 19:00 hrs.” However, female candidates will be admitted to Mining Engineering or Mining Machinery Engineering related courses at IIT (ISM) Dhanbad, IIT Kharagpur and IIT (BHU) Varanasi. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 53 31. List of Courses Offered by IITs in the Academic Year 2023-24 The relevant courses offered by IITs in the Academic Year 2023-24 are given in Annexure–III. Some of the courses have additional requirements and these are marked as AR. The courses to be offered by the various Institutes in the Academic Year 2024-25 may vary. A few of the courses offered in 2023 may not be offered at all or may be modified (course title and/or content). It is also possible that a few new courses will be offered. The additional requirements may also change. The final list will be made available in the JoSAA 2024 online portal at the time of filling-in of the choices for seat allocation. 32. Important Dates Important dates of various activities regarding JEE (Advanced) 2024 and AAT 2024 are presented in Annexure-IV. Changes in the date(s), if any, will ONLY be published on the official website (https://jeeadv.ac.in). Candidates are therefore, advised to visit the official website from time to time to check for updates. 33. Queries and Grievances All stages of JEE (Advanced) 2024 will be conducted with transparency, strictly in accordance with this Information Brochure. Should there be any grievance or query relating to JEE (Advanced) 2024, the candidate must write to the Organizing Chairperson of JEE (Advanced) 2024 for clarification at the addresses given in Annexure-V. The decision taken on such queries / grievances by the Organizing Chairperson of JEE (Advanced) 2024 shall be final. 34. Hindi Version This Information Brochure is published in English as well as in Hindi. In the event of doubt or discrepancy, the English version will prevail. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 54 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 55 Annexures © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 56 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 57 Annexure-I: SYLLABI © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 58 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 59 CHEMISTRY General topics Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton’s atomic theory; Mole concept; Chemical formulae; Balanced chemical equations; Calculations (based on mole concept and stoichiometry) involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction, molarity, molality and normality. States of Matter: Gases and Liquids Gas laws and ideal gas equation, absolute scale of temperature; Deviation from ideality, van der Waals equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature; Law of partial pressures; Diffusion of gases. Intermolecular interactions: types, distance dependence, and their effect on properties; Liquids: vapour pressure, surface tension, viscosity. Atomic Structure Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom; Wave-particle duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative quantum mechanical picture of hydrogen atom: Energies, quantum numbers, wave function and probability density (plots only), shapes of s, p and d orbitals; Aufbau principle; Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Orbital overlap and covalent bond; Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only; Molecular orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species (up to Ne2); Hydrogen bond; Polarity in molecules, dipole moment; VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear, angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral). © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 60 Chemical Thermodynamics Intensive and extensive properties, state functions, First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work (pressure-volume only) and heat; Enthalpy, heat capacity, standard state, Hess’s law; Enthalpy of reaction, fusion and vapourization, and lattice enthalpy; Second law of thermodynamics; Entropy; Gibbs energy; Criteria of equilibrium and spontaneity. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium Law of mass action; Significance of ∆𝐺 and ∆𝐺 ⊖ in chemical equilibrium; Equilibrium constant (Kp and Kc) and reaction quotient, Le Chatelier’s principle (effect of concentration, temperature and pressure); Solubility product and its applications, common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions; Acids and bases (Brønsted and Lewis concepts); Hydrolysis of salts. Electrochemistry Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; Standard electrode potentials; Electrochemical work, Nernst equation; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells; Faraday’s laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch’s law; Batteries: Primary and Secondary, fuel cells; Corrosion. Chemical Kinetics Rates of chemical reactions; Order and molecularity of reactions; Rate law, rate constant, half-life; Differential and integrated rate expressions for zero and first order reactions; Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation and activation energy); Catalysis: Homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and selectivity of solid catalysts, enzyme catalysis and its mechanism. Solid State Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c, α, β, γ), close packed structure of solids (cubic and hexagonal), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; Nearest neighbours, ionic radii and radius ratio, point defects. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 61 Solutions Henry’s law; Raoult’s law; Ideal solutions; Colligative properties: lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point, and osmotic pressure; van’t Hoff factor. Surface Chemistry Elementary concepts of adsorption: Physisorption and Chemisorption, Freundlich adsorption isotherm; Colloids: types, methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary ideas of emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and examples). Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Modern periodic law and the present form of periodic table; electronic configuration of elements; periodic trends in atomic radius, ionic radius, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, valence, oxidation states, electronegativity, and chemical reactivity. Hydrogen Position of hydrogen in periodic table, occurrence, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen; hydrides – ionic, covalent and interstitial; physical and chemical properties of water, heavy water; hydrogen peroxidepreparation, reactions, use and structure; hydrogen as a fuel. s-Block Elements Alkali and alkaline earth metals-reactivity towards air, water, dihydrogen, halogens, acids; their reducing nature including solutions in liquid ammonia; uses of these elements; general characteristics of their oxides, hydroxides, halides, salts of oxoacids; anomalous behaviour of lithium and beryllium; preparation, properties, and uses of compounds of sodium (sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide, sodium hydrogen carbonate) and calcium (calcium oxide, calcium hydroxide, calcium carbonate, calcium sulphate). © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 62 p-Block Elements Oxidation state and trends in chemical reactivity of elements of groups 13-17; anomalous properties of boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and fluorine with respect to other elements in their respective groups. Group 13: Reactivity towards acids, alkalis, and halogens; preparation, properties, and uses of borax, orthoboric acid, diborane, boron trifluoride, aluminium chloride, and alums; uses of boron and aluminium. Group 14: Reactivity towards water and halogen; allotropes of carbon and uses of carbon; preparation, properties, and uses of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, silicon dioxide, silicones, silicates, zeolites. Group 15: Reactivity towards hydrogen, oxygen, and halogen; allotropes of phosphorous; preparation, properties, and uses of dinitrogen, ammonia, nitric acid, phosphine, phosphorus trichloride, phosphorus pentachloride; oxides of nitrogen and oxoacids of phosphorus. Group 16: Reactivity towards hydrogen, oxygen, and halogen; simple oxides; allotropes of sulfur; preparation/manufacture, properties, and uses of dioxygen, ozone, sulfur dioxide, sulfuric acid; oxoacids of sulfur. Group 17: Reactivity towards hydrogen, oxygen, and metals; preparation/manufacture, properties, and uses of chlorine, hydrogen chloride and interhalogen compounds; oxoacids of halogens, bleaching powder. Group 18: Chemical properties and uses; compounds of xenon with fluorine and oxygen. d-Block Elements Oxidation states and their stability; standard electrode potentials; interstitial compounds; alloys; catalytic properties; applications; preparation, structure, and reactions of oxoanions of chromium and manganese. f-Block Elements Lanthanoid and actinoid contractions; oxidation states; general characteristics. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 63 Coordination Compounds Werner’s theory; Nomenclature, cis-trans and ionization isomerism, hybridization and geometries (linear, tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral) of mononuclear coordination compounds; Bonding [VBT and CFT (octahedral and tetrahedral fields)]; Magnetic properties (spin-only) and colour of 3d-series coordination compounds; Ligands and spectrochemical series; Stability; Importance and applications; Metal carbonyls. Isolation of Metals Metal ores and their concentration; extraction of crude metal from concentrated ores: thermodynamic (iron, copper, zinc) and electrochemical (aluminium) principles of metallurgy; cyanide process (silver and gold); refining. Principles of Qualitative Analysis Groups I to V (only Ag+ , Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), carbonate and bicarbonate, sulphate and sulphide. Environmental Chemistry Atmospheric pollution; water pollution; soil pollution; industrial waste; strategies to control environmental pollution; green chemistry. Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Hybridisation of carbon; σ and π-bonds; Shapes of simple organic molecules; aromaticity; Structural and geometrical isomerism; Stereoisomers and stereochemical relationship (enantiomers, diastereomers, meso) of compounds containing only up to two asymmetric centres (R,S and E,Z configurations excluded); Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of simple compounds by combustion method only; IUPAC nomenclature of organic molecules (hydrocarbons, including simple cyclic hydrocarbons and their monofunctional and bi-functional derivatives only); Hydrogen bonding effects; Inductive, Resonance and Hyperconjugative effects; Acidity and basicity of organic compounds; Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 64 heterolytic bond cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free radicals. Alkanes Homologous series; Physical properties (melting points, boiling points and density) and effect of branching on them; Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections only); Preparation from alkyl halides and aliphatic carboxylic acids; Reactions: combustion, halogenation (including allylic and benzylic halogenation) and oxidation. Alkenes and Alkynes Physical properties (boiling points, density and dipole moments); Preparation by elimination reactions; Acid catalysed hydration (excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Metal acetylides; Reactions of alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and alkynes; Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX, (X=halogen); Effect of peroxide on addition reactions; cyclic polymerization reaction of alkynes. Benzene Structure; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of directing groups (monosubstituted benzene) in these reactions. Phenols Physical properties; Preparation, Electrophilic substitution reactions of phenol (halogenation, nitration, sulphonation); Reimer-Tiemann reaction, Kolbe reaction; Esterification; Etherification; Aspirin synthesis; Oxidation and reduction reactions of phenol. Alkyl Halides Rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation; Grignard reactions; Nucleophilic substitution reactions and their stereochemical aspects. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 65 Alcohols Physical properties; Reactions: esterification, dehydration (formation of alkenes and ethers); Reactions with: sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl, thionyl chloride; Conversion of alcohols into aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids. Ethers Preparation by Williamson’s synthesis; C-O bond cleavage reactions. Aldehydes and Ketones Preparation of: aldehydes and ketones from acid chlorides and nitriles; aldehydes from esters; benzaldehyde from toluene and benzene; Reactions: oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation; Aldol condensation, Cannizzaro reaction; Haloform reaction; Nucleophilic addition reaction with RMgX, NaHSO3, HCN, alcohol, amine. Carboxylic Acids Physical properties; Preparation: from nitriles, Grignard reagents, hydrolysis of esters and amides; Preparation of benzoic acid from alkylbenzenes; Reactions: reduction, halogenation, formation of esters, acid chlorides and amides. Amines Preparation from nitro compounds, nitriles and amides; Reactions: Hoffmann bromamide degradation, Gabriel phthalimide synthesis; Reaction with nitrous acid, Azo coupling reaction of diazonium salts of aromatic amines; Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts; Carbylamine reaction, Hinsberg test, Alkylation and acylation reactions. Haloarenes Reactions: Fittig, Wurtz-Fittig; Nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding benzyne mechanism and cine substitution). © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 66 Biomolecules Carbohydrates: Classification; Mono- and di-saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation; Reduction; Glycoside formation and hydrolysis of disaccharides (sucrose, maltose, lactose); Anomers. Proteins: Amino acids; Peptide linkage; Structure of peptides (primary and secondary); Types of proteins (fibrous and globular). Nucleic acids: Chemical composition and structure of DNA and RNA. Polymers Types of polymerization (addition, condensation); Homo and copolymers; Natural rubber; Cellulose; Nylon; Teflon; Bakelite; PVC; Bio-degradable polymers; Applications of polymers. Chemistry in Everyday Life Drug-target interaction; Therapeutic action, and examples (excluding structures), of antacids, antihistamines, tranquilizers, analgesics, antimicrobials, and antifertility drugs; Artificial sweeteners (names only); Soaps, detergents, and cleansing action. Practical Organic Chemistry Detection of elements (N, S, halogens); Detection and identification of the following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 67 MATHEMATICS Sets, Relations and Functions Sets and their representations, different kinds of sets (empty, finite and infinite), algebra of sets, intersection, complement, difference and symmetric difference of sets and their algebraic properties, De-Morgan’s laws on union, intersection, difference (for finite number of sets) and practical problems based on them. Cartesian product of finite sets, ordered pair, relations, domain and codomain of relations, equivalence relation. Function as a special case of relation, functions as mappings, domain, codomain, range of functions, invertible functions, even and odd functions, into, onto and one-to-one functions, special functions (polynomial, trigonometric, exponential, logarithmic, power, absolute value, greatest integer, etc.), sum, difference, product and composition of functions. Algebra Algebra of complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle inequality, cube roots of unity, geometric interpretations. Statement of fundamental theorem of algebra, Quadratic equations with real coefficients, relations between roots and coefficients, formation of quadratic equations with given roots, symmetric functions of roots. Arithmetic and geometric progressions, arithmetic and geometric means, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions, infinite geometric series, sum of the first n natural numbers, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural numbers. Logarithms and their properties, permutations and combinations, binomial theorem for a positive integral index, properties of binomial coefficients. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 68 Matrices Matrices as a rectangular array of real numbers, equality of matrices, addition, multiplication by a scalar and product of matrices, transpose of a matrix, elementary row and column transformations, determinant of a square matrix of order up to three, adjoint of a matrix, inverse of a square matrix of order up to three, properties of these matrix operations, diagonal, symmetric and skewsymmetric matrices and their properties, solutions of simultaneous linear equations in two or three variables. Probability and Statistics Random experiment, sample space, different types of events (impossible, simple, compound), addition and multiplication rules of probability, conditional probability, independence of events, total probability, Bayes Theorem, computation of probability of events using permutations and combinations. Measure of central tendency and dispersion, mean, median, mode, mean deviation, standard deviation and variance of grouped and ungrouped data, analysis of the frequency distribution with same mean but different variance, random variable, mean and variance of the random variable. Trigonometry Trigonometric functions, their periodicity and graphs, addition and subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and sub-multiple angles, general solution of trigonometric equations. Inverse trigonometric functions (principal value only) and their elementary properties. Analytical Geometry Two dimensions: Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift of origin. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 69 Equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line; Lines through the point of intersection of two given lines, equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines, concurrency of lines; Centroid, orthocentre, incentre and circumcentre of a triangle. Equation of a circle in various forms, equations of tangent, normal and chord. Parametric equations of a circle, intersection of a circle with a straight line or a circle, equation of a circle through the points of intersection of two circles and those of a circle and a straight line. Equations of a parabola, ellipse and hyperbola in standard form, their foci, directrices and eccentricity, parametric equations, equations of tangent and normal. Locus problems. Three dimensions: Distance between two points, direction cosines and direction ratios, equation of a straight line in space, skew lines, shortest distance between two lines, equation of a plane, distance of a point from a plane, angle between two lines, angle between two planes, angle between a line and the plane, coplanar lines. Differential Calculus Limit of a function at a real number, continuity of a function, limit and continuity of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, L’Hospital rule of evaluation of limits of functions. Continuity of composite functions, intermediate value property of continuous functions. Derivative of a function, derivative of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, chain rule, derivatives of polynomial, rational, trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 70 Tangents and normals, increasing and decreasing functions, derivatives of order two, maximum and minimum values of a function, Rolle’s theorem and Lagrange’s mean value theorem, geometric interpretation of the two theorems, derivatives up to order two of implicit functions, geometric interpretation of derivatives. Integral Calculus Integration as the inverse process of differentiation, indefinite integrals of standard functions, definite integrals as the limit of sums, definite integral and their properties, fundamental theorem of integral calculus. Integration by parts, integration by the methods of substitution and partial fractions, application of definite integrals to the determination of areas bounded by simple curves. Formation of ordinary differential equations, solution of homogeneous differential equations of first order and first degree, separation of variables method, linear first order differential equations. Vectors Addition of vectors, scalar multiplication, dot and cross products, scalar and vector triple products, and their geometrical interpretations. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 71 PHYSICS General General Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s modulus - elasticity of the material, Surface tension of water by capillary rise and effect of detergents. Specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, focal length of a concave mirror and a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound using resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter and ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire using meter bridge and post office box. Mechanics Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), projectiles; Uniform circular motion; Relative velocity. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Forced and damped oscillation (in one dimension), resonance. Linear and angular simple harmonic motions. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 72 Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Kepler’s law, Geostationary orbits, Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, angle of contact, drops, bubbles and capillary rise. Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Modulus of rigidity and bulk modulus in mechanics. Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow, equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications. Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air columns; Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in sound). Thermal Physics Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation; Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications (only for ideal gases); Second law of thermodynamics, reversible and irreversible processes, Carnot engine and its efficiency; Blackbody radiation: absorptive and emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law. Electricity and Magnetism Coulomb’s law; Electric field and potential; Electrical potential energy of a system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field; Electric field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in simple cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 73 Capacitance; Parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectrics; Capacitors in series and parallel; Energy stored in a capacitor. Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and parallel arrangements of resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple applications; Heating effect of current. Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law; Magnetic field near a current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and on a current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field. Magnetic moment of a current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop; Moving coil galvanometer, voltmeter, ammeter and their conversions. Electromagnetic induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and mutual inductance; RC, LR, LC and LCR (in series) circuits with d.c. and a.c. sources. Electromagnetic Waves Electromagnetic waves and their characteristics. Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays) including elementary facts about their uses. Optics Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction at plane and spherical surfaces; Total internal reflection; Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism; Thin lenses; Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification. Wave nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to Young’s double slit experiment. Diffraction due to a single slit. Polarization of light, plane polarized light; Brewster's law, Polaroids. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 74 Modern Physics Atomic nucleus; α, β and γ radiations; Law of radioactive decay; Decay constant; Half-life and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation; Fission and fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes. Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms; Characteristic and continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie wavelength of matter waves. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 75 ARCHITECTURE APTITUDE TEST Freehand drawing This would comprise of simple drawing depicting the total object in its right form and proportion, surface texture, relative location and details of its component parts in appropriate scale. Common domestic or day-to-day life usable objects like furniture, equipment, etc., from memory. Geometrical drawing Exercises in geometrical drawing containing lines, angles, triangles, quadrilaterals, polygons, circles, etc. Study of plan (top view), elevation (front or side views) of simple solid objects like prisms, cones, cylinders, cubes, splayed surface holders, etc. Three-dimensional perception Understanding and appreciation of three-dimensional forms with building elements, colour, volume and orientation. Visualization through structuring objects in memory. Imagination and aesthetic sensitivity Composition exercise with given elements. Context mapping. Creativity check through innovative uncommon test with familiar objects. Sense of colour grouping or application. Architectural awareness General interest and awareness of famous architectural creations – both national and international, places and personalities (architects, designers, etc.) in the related domain © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 76 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 77 Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 78 This Page Intentionally Left Blank © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 79 FORM-GEN-EWS Government of …………………………………. (Name & Address of the authority issuing the certificate) INCOME & ASSET CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTIONS Certificate No. _____________________ Date___________________ 1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari __________________________ son/daughter/wife of _______________________________ permanent resident of _________________________, Village/Street ____________________ Post Office _________________ District ______________ in the State/Union Territory ___________________ Pin Code __________ whose photograph in attested below belongs to Economically Weaker Sections, since the gross annual income* of his/her “family”** is below Rs. 8 lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh only) for the financial year 2023-2024. His/her family does not own or possess any of the following assets***: I. 5 acres of agricultural land and above; II. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above; III. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities; IV. Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities. 2. Shri/Smt./Kumari ________________________ belongs to the ________ caste which is not recognized as a Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribe and Other Backward Classes (Central List). Signature with seal of Officer __________________ Name ________________________ Designation _______________ * Note1: Income covered all sources i.e., salary, agricultural, business, profession, etc. ** Note2: The term “Family” for this purpose includesthe person, who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years. *** Note3: The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities have been clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status. FORM-OBC-NCL Recent Passport size attested photograph of the applicant The income and assets of the families as mentioned would be required to be certified by an officer not below the rank of Tehsildar in the States/UTs. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 80 OBC-NCL Certificate Format FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES (NCL)* APPLYING FOR ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIs), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum** _____________________________________ Son/ Daughter** of Shri/Smt.** ______________________________________of Village/ Town**___________________________________District/Division** ___________________ in the State/Union Territory _________________________________ belongs to the __________________________________ community that is recognized as a backward class under Government of India***, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s Resolution No. __________________________________ dated ___________________**** Shri/Smt./Kum. ________________________________________ and/or ______________ his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in the ________________________________ District/Division of the _____________________________ State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does NOT belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93- Estt. (SCT) dated 08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004 Estt.(Res.) dated 09/03/2004, further modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res.) dated 14/10/2008, again further modified vide OM No.36036/2/2013-Estt (Res) dtd. 30/05/2014, and again further modified vide OM No. 36033/1/2013-Estt (Res) dtd. 13/09/2017. District Magistrate / Deputy Commissioner / Any other Competent Authority Dated: Seal * Visit http://www.ncbc.nic.in for latest guidelines and updates on the Central List of State-wise OBCs. ** Please delete the word(s) which are not applicable. *** As listed in the Annexure (for FORM-OBC-NCL) **** The authority issuing the certificate needs to mention the details of Resolution of Government of India, in which the caste of the candidate is mentioned as OBC. NOTE: (a) The term ‘Ordinarily resides’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. (b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below: (i) District Magistrate/ Additional Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate). (ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate. (iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and (iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides (v) Certificate issued by any other authority will be rejected © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 81 ANNEXURE for FORM-OBC-NCL Sl. No. Resolution No. Date of Notification 1 No.12011/68/93-BCC(C) 13.09.1993 2 No.12011/9/94-BCC 19.10.1994 3 No.12011/7/95-BCC 24.05.1995 4 No.12011/96/94-BCC 09.03.1996 5 No.12011/44/96-BCC 11.12.1996 6 No.12011/13/97-BCC 03.12.1997 7 No.12011/99/94-BCC 11.12.1997 8 No.12011/68/98-BCC 27.10.1999 9 No.12011/88/98-BCC 06.12.1999 10 No.12011/36/99-BCC 04.04.2000 11 No.12011/44/99-BCC 21.09.2000 12 No.12015/9/2000-BCC 06.09.2001 13 No.12011/1/2001-BCC 19.06.2003 14 No.12011/4/2002-BCC 13.01.2004 15 No.12011/9/2004-BCC 16.01.2006 16 No.12011/14/2004-BCC 12.03.2007 17 No.12011/16/2007-BCC 12.10.2007 18 No.12019/6/2005-BCC 30.07.2010 19 No. 12015/2/2007-BCC 18.08.2010 20 No.12015/15/2008-BCC 16.06.2011 21 No.12015/13/2010-BC-II 08.12.2011 22 No.12015/5/2011-BC-II 17.02.2014 23 No. 12011/04/2014-BC-II 14.01.2015 24 No. 12011/7/2014-BC-II 23.01.2015 25 No. 12011/1/2015-BC-II 27.05.2015 26 No. 12015/05/2011-BC-II 14.07.2015 27 No. 12011/06/2014-BC-II 09.09.2015 28 No. 12011/13/2016-BC-II 25.05.2016 29 No. 12011/14/2016-BC-II 13.06.2016 30 No. 12011/15/2016-BC-II 30.06.2016 31 No. 12011/4/2014-BC-II 11.08.2016 32 No. 12011/6/2014-BC-II 06.12.2016 33 No. 12011/13/2016-BC-II 22.12.2016 34 No. 20012/1/2017-BC-II 18.01.2017 35 No. 12011/7/2017-BC-II 28.07.2017 36 No. 36033/1/2013-Estt. (Res.) 13.09.2017 37 No. 36033/2/2018-Estt. (Res.) 08.06.2018 © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 82 FORM-SC-ST SC/ST Certificate Format FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY SCHEDULED CASTES (SC) AND SCHEDULED TRIBES (ST) CANDIDATES 1. This is to certify that Shri/ Shrimati/ Kumari* _________________________________________________________ son/daughter* of _____________________________________ of Village/Town* __________________________ District/Division* _________________________________ of State/Union Territory* _____________________________ belongs to the _______________________________Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe* under :- * The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 * The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950 * The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951 * The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951 [As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North Eastern Areas(Reorganisation) Act, 1971, the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders(Amendment) Act, 1976 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002] * TheConstitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956; * TheConstitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Act, 1976; * The Constitution (Dadara and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962; * TheConstitution (Dadara and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962; * TheConstitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964; * TheConstitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967; * TheConstitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968; * TheConstitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968; * TheConstitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970; * TheConstitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978; * TheConstitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978; * TheConstitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989; * TheConstitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Act, 1990; * TheConstitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Act, 1991; * TheConstitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Act, 1991. 2. # This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes* Certificate issued to Shri /Shrimati* _______________________________ father/mother* of Shri /Shrimati /Kumari* ___________________________ of Village/Town* _____________________________________ in District/Division* _____________________________ of the State State/Union Territory*________________________________ who belong to the Caste / Tribe* which is recognised as a Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe* in the State / Union Territory* ____________________issued by the ____________________ dated ________________. 3. Shri/ Shrimati/ Kumari * and / or* his / her* family ordinarily reside(s)** in Village/Town* of District/Division* of the State Union Territory* of . Signature: ____________________ Designation ____________________ (With seal of the Office) Place: ______________ State/Union Territory* Date: * Please delete the word(s) which are not applicable. # Applicable in the case of SC/ST Persons who have migrated from another State/UT. IMPORTANT NOTES The term “ordinarily reside(s)**” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Officers competent to issue Caste/Tribe certificates: 1. District Magistrate / Additional District Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy Collector / Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate / City Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner. 2. Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate. 3. Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar. 4. Sub-divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/ or his family normally reside(s). 5. Administrator / Secretary to Administrator / Development Officer (Lakshadweep Island). 6. Certificate issued by any other authority will be rejected. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 83 FORM-PwD (II) Form-II Disability Certificate (In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs and in cases of blindness) (NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE) (See rule 4) Certificate No. ________________________________________ Date: This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________ _______________ son/wife/daughter of Shri__________________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ___________________ Age ______________ years, male/female ________________ Registration No._______________________________ permanent resident of House No. ______________________ Ward/Village/ Street____________________________________ Post Office ______________________ District __________________________ State _________________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that: 1. he/she is a case of: a. locomotor disability b. blindness (Please tick as applicable) 2. the diagnosis in his/her case is ______________________________________ 3. He/ She has______________% (in figure) _________________________________percent (in words) permanent physical impairment/blindness in relation to his/her ______________ (part of body) as per guidelines (to be specified). 4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:- Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate (Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority) Recent PP size attested photograph (showing face only) of the person with disability Signature/Thumb impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is issued. © JEE (Advanced) 2024 – Information Brochure 84 FORM-PwD (III) Form-III Disability Certificate (In cases of multiple disabilities) (NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE) (See rule 4) Certificate No.__________________________________ Date: __________ This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________________________ son/ wife/daughter of Shri____________________________________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) _________________________ Age_________ years, male/female________________ Registration No. _____________________________________ permanent resident of House No. _________________________________ Ward/Village/Street _____________________________ Post Office _________________________________ District ______________________________ State __________________________________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and are satisfied that: 1. He/she is a Case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical impairment/ disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and shown against the relevant disability in the table below: S. No. Disability Affected Part of Body Diagnosis Permanent physical impairment/mental disability (in %) 1 Locomotor disability @ 2 Low vision # 3 Blindness Both Eyes 4 Hearing impairment £ 5 Mental retardation X 6 Mental-illness X @ - e.g., Left/Right/both arms/legs # - e.g., Single eye/both eyes £ - e.g., Left/Right/both ears Latest Job Top 5 job in Haryana Top 10 job in Inida Top 5 job in Police Top 10 job in Haryana Top 10 Job Army Top 10 job in Bihar Top 10 Job in MP Top 10 job in Rajasthan Top 10 Police Job Top 10 Teaching Job Top 10 Data entry jobs Top 10 Offline Form Top Online FOrm Top 10 Army top 10 All india job top 10 job Junior Assistant Top 10 typist job Top 10 stenographer job Top 10 clerk Job in Haryana

IIT JEE (Advanced) Exam Admit Card 2024

Important Dates

  • Starting Date : 27/04/2024
  • Last Date : 07/05/2024 11:30 PM
  • Fees Last Date : 10/05/2024
  • Exam Date : 26/05/2024
  • Admit Card : 17/05/2024
  • Result Out : 15/06/2024

Application Fee

  • General / OBC / EWS : 3200/-
  • SC / ST / PH (Divyang) : 1600/-
  • All Female Category : 1600/-
  • Payment Mode : Online Mode

Age Limit

  • Born on or After : 01/10/1999 (Gen / OBC / EWS)
  • Born on or After : 01/10/1994 (SC / ST / PH)

Eligibility Details

  • Passed JEE MAIN 2024 Entrance Test with Secured Qualified Marks.

Important Links

Content Type
Content Link
Get Admit Card
Fill Online Form
Full Notification
Get Exam Syllabus
Official Website